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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 46

Question 450

A team proposes transferring router passwords and confidential configuration archives using unauthenticated TFTP across a public network. Which risk should be raised?

  1. An IPv4 private address on the server proves the public path is secure.
  2. Only changing the VLAN name makes plaintext transfer confidential.
  3. TFTP lacks built-in authentication and encryption; use a protected transfer alternative or isolated management path.
  4. TFTP encrypts credentials automatically using TLS on every platform.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

TFTP is useful for simple trusted file exchanges but does not protect credentials or secret configuration data on untrusted paths. The confidentiality and authorization requirements call for a secure protocol or a tightly isolated transport environment with additional controls. File checksum verification alone does not encrypt the content.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Private addressing describes reachability and address allocation, not payload encryption. A routed or tunneled path can still require explicit protections.

B:

VLAN naming is local Layer 2 metadata and does not encrypt packets crossing an untrusted WAN. Cryptographic protection is needed.

D:

Basic TFTP does not negotiate TLS or authenticate a user as part of the protocol. Assuming encryption would expose sensitive archives.

Question 451

A staff member opens a convincing malicious email link and provides a username and password on a counterfeit login page. Which attack technique is illustrated?

  1. Phishing that impersonates a trusted login workflow to steal credentials.
  2. OSPF link-state database poisoning through invalid LSAs.
  3. NTP clock skew affecting only event timestamps.
  4. DHCP relay forwarding a legitimate address request.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Phishing uses social engineering to convince a person to disclose sensitive information or take an unsafe action. A counterfeit sign-in page can capture credentials even when the corporate router is correctly configured. User awareness, phishing-resistant MFA and appropriate filtering are complementary defenses.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The incident occurs at a user-facing counterfeit website and involves credential disclosure, not a routing-control advertisement.

C:

Clock problems can complicate logs but are not the technique used to trick a user into entering credentials on an attacker page.

D:

A DHCP relay transports configuration requests between subnets; it does not explain deceptive email impersonation and stolen passwords.

Question 452

A vulnerability scan finds an unpatched web application library that could be abused. No attack has yet been observed. What is the most accurate classification of that flaw?

  1. A mitigation that closes the application’s attack surface.
  2. A vulnerability that exposes the system to potential exploitation.
  3. A confirmed successful exploit that has already compromised the host.
  4. An authentication certificate issued to the administrator.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A vulnerability is a weakness in design, software or configuration that may permit harm if an attacker can reach and exploit it. The absent exploit evidence matters: the weakness exists even before an incident. Patch management, isolation and compensating controls can reduce exposure while updates are evaluated.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A mitigation reduces risk, while the unpatched library increases exposure. The scanner has identified a defect that needs a remedial control.

C:

The case reports a finding but explicitly no observed attack. An exploit is the technique or code used to take advantage of a weakness, not simply the weakness itself.

D:

A certificate can help establish an identity or trust context but does not describe this unpatched code weakness. The issue is a software vulnerability.

Question 453

A threat actor sends specially crafted packets to trigger a documented switch management-plane parser defect. Which term describes the crafted technique exploiting the weakness?

  1. An exploit targeting a known vulnerability.
  2. A compensating mitigation that blocks the attack.
  3. A documented security training policy.
  4. The vulnerability itself, which is the attacker’s exact packet sequence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An exploit is a specific method, input or code path used to exercise a vulnerable condition. The threat actor is the potential adversary, and the parser defect is the weakness. Distinguishing those concepts helps the security team choose both patching and detection controls.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A mitigation would reduce the exposure; the crafted packet is attempting to trigger the defect, not prevent it.

C:

Training is a protective program element, not the technical exploit packet delivered to a parser.

D:

The vulnerability is the device weakness that the crafted input targets. The actual input or technique exercising it is the exploit.

Question 454

An attacker floods a public-facing server with traffic to exhaust its resources and prevent legitimate users from reaching the service. Which goal best describes the attack?

  1. Confidentiality protection through encryption.
  2. A network management clock synchronization protocol.
  3. Data integrity verification using cryptographic hashes.
  4. Denial of service against availability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A denial-of-service attack attempts to degrade or remove access to a service by exhausting network, CPU, memory or application resources. The primary security property targeted is availability, rather than confidentiality or integrity. Rate limiting, filtering, resilient capacity and upstream mitigation may reduce impact.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Encryption protects information from disclosure and is a defensive control, not the described exhaustion of service resources.

B:

NTP maintains timing and does not intentionally exhaust a production application to deny service. The traffic is adversarial.

C:

Integrity checks detect changes to data; the case’s effect is users being unable to access a service. Availability is the property being attacked.

Question 455

A security report identifies a criminal group with intent and capability to launch credential-stuffing campaigns against a public VPN login. Which term best classifies the group as a source of potential harm?

  1. A threat actor or threat source.
  2. A configured access-control mitigation.
  3. A network interface duplex mismatch.
  4. An unpatched software flaw.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A threat source is a person, group or event that could cause adverse impact to assets. Credential stuffing is a possible attack behavior, while a weak authentication policy may be a vulnerability. The distinction separates who may attack from the technical weakness and protective controls.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A mitigation is a defensive action or policy. The described criminal group intends to cause harm, not reduce it.

C:

Duplex mismatch is an operational Ethernet fault and not a classification for a human threat group with adversarial intent.

D:

A vulnerability is a weakness in the system, whereas the group is the possible adversary. Those are different risk elements.

Question 456

An organization restricts management SSH sources, applies security patches and enables MFA after a remote-login risk assessment. What do these actions represent?

  1. A threat actor capability that increases attack probability.
  2. An Ethernet CRC error-correction mechanism.
  3. Mitigation controls that reduce exploit likelihood or impact.
  4. Proof that every vulnerability has already been exploited.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Patching removes known software weaknesses, access restriction reduces exposure and MFA makes unauthorized credential reuse harder. These are mitigations selected against identified risk. They do not guarantee absolute security, so the organization must still monitor control effectiveness and address residual threats.

Incorrect Answers

A:

These are defensive restrictions, not adversary abilities. They aim to reduce the chance or consequence of successful attacks.

B:

SSH ACLs, patches and MFA govern security exposure, not link-layer frame checksums. They are not electrical media repairs.

D:

Controls can be preventive and are often deployed before attacks occur. Their existence does not establish prior compromise.

Question 457

A switch is configured to accept an unauthorized host as a trusted DHCP server, allowing it to issue malicious default gateways. Which security failure is being exploited?

  1. The lack of an appropriate DHCP snooping trust boundary on the access network.
  2. An OSPF cost mismatch on a router with no DHCP involvement.
  3. A legitimate static DNS record that only resolves service names.
  4. A missing syslog severity label in an otherwise trusted offer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

DHCP snooping can distinguish trusted DHCP server-facing interfaces from untrusted client ports, rejecting unauthorized DHCP server messages where configured. Without that control, a rogue server can offer incorrect gateway or resolver settings to hosts. The primary risk is address-configuration spoofing, not an OSPF route calculation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

OSPF metrics select IP routes and do not directly validate which access ports may send DHCP OFFER packets. The attack occurs in DHCP client configuration.

C:

DNS records map names to addresses; the rogue server is instead distributing network options through DHCP. The failure is unauthorized DHCP sourcing.

D:

Logging classifications help detect events but do not prevent an untrusted DHCP server from responding. Trust and packet validation are needed.

Question 458

A SOC observes many valid username attempts paired with known leaked passwords against its VPN portal. Which attack pattern fits?

  1. Credential stuffing that tries previously compromised credential pairs.
  2. Normal NTP peer synchronization traffic.
  3. ARP poisoning limited to local gateway MAC mapping.
  4. A purely physical denial-of-service from a disconnected Ethernet cable.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Credential stuffing automates authentication attempts with stolen username/password combinations to find reused credentials. It differs from random password brute force because attackers rely on leaked pairs. MFA, rate limiting, anomaly detection and unique passwords mitigate this common authentication threat.

Incorrect Answers

B:

NTP exchanges time information, not username/password login attempts against a VPN portal. The protocol and intent differ.

C:

ARP spoofing manipulates local neighbor mappings; it does not describe replaying leaked credentials at a routed VPN login endpoint.

D:

The observed requests reach the login application and contain credential pairs. It is an authentication abuse pattern rather than missing physical carrier.

Question 459

A company trains employees to recognize suspicious login links and report attempted credential theft. Which security-program element does this represent?

  1. An OSPF route redistribution policy.
  2. A switch STP root bridge election.
  3. A DNS TTL setting for the mail server.
  4. User security awareness and phishing training.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Awareness training prepares users to identify social engineering patterns and follow approved reporting steps, reducing the chance that deceptive content leads to compromise. It supplements technical controls such as MFA and filtering but does not replace them. The focus is human behavior rather than a router configuration command.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF route policies affect network reachability and do not teach employees how to recognize fraudulent sign-in messages.

B:

STP topology protects Layer 2 loops, not user decisions about phishing links. The program operates at a different security layer.

C:

Record caching affects name resolution but does not train staff or supply a reporting process for suspicious messages.

Question 460

A restricted data center stores spare network devices. A technician proposes leaving the rack door unlocked because the equipment already has administrator passwords. What control is still necessary?

  1. Enforce physical security of racks, ports and removable media in addition to logical passwords.
  2. Configure an OSPF passive interface on every rack door.
  3. Disable every DNS query from the data center.
  4. Rely on administrative passwords as a complete physical barrier.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Physical possession can allow tampering, theft, hardware replacement or console access even when the device has management credentials. Locked racks and controlled access reduce that attack surface. Defense in depth uses both physical and logical controls rather than assuming one control removes all others.

Incorrect Answers

B:

OSPF passive interfaces are routing configuration elements, not sensors or locks controlling room and rack entry.

C:

DNS filtering does not prevent a person with physical access from taking or damaging network devices. The risk is at the premises.

D:

Passwords protect selected logical operations but do not prevent theft or manipulation of exposed hardware. Physical access remains an independent security requirement.