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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 4

Question 30

Two full-duplex switches are linked by a point-to-point 10-Gb/s Ethernet fiber connection; the engineer worries about collision domains on the cable. Which statement is accurate?

  1. Configuring a larger subnet mask removes physical-layer collisions.
  2. The link cannot carry unicast frames without an IP default gateway.
  3. Both switches must use CSMA/CD for every frame on a full-duplex fiber link.
  4. A properly operating full-duplex point-to-point Ethernet link does not use shared-medium collisions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Each end of a full-duplex point-to-point link has independent send and receive capability, so classic CSMA/CD collisions do not regulate access. Ethernet framing and FCS still apply, and damaged media can cause frame errors. A shared hub-era collision domain is a different physical topology.

Incorrect Answers

A:

IP prefix masks do not change Ethernet duplex signaling or collision behavior. Physical topology and link negotiation determine whether the segment is shared or full duplex.

B:

Ethernet point-to-point ports forward Layer 2 frames based on their switching context, regardless of whether a management default gateway exists. Routing is a separate requirement.

C:

Collision detection is associated with half-duplex shared medium rather than normal full-duplex point-to-point Ethernet. Applying it here confuses two distinct access technologies.

Question 31

A switch CLI shows an interface administratively down. The cable and peer device are both working, and the port was disabled during maintenance. What is the direct recovery action?

  1. Change the VLAN access number without re-enabling the interface.
  2. Clear the local switch MAC address table.
  3. Enter interface configuration mode and apply `no shutdown` after verifying authorization.
  4. Configure an IP default route on the upstream router.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cisco IOS interface `shutdown` administratively disables transmission regardless of a healthy physical medium. `no shutdown` re-enables the interface, after which it can attempt carrier negotiation and protocol startup. Verify the change is approved and check operational status; altering VLAN tags alone would not remove administrative disablement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An access VLAN determines how frames are classified only after the port is operational. The explicit administrative-down condition remains unchanged.

B:

Deleting learned forwarding entries can temporarily increase flooding, but it does not remove an interface shutdown command. The port must be enabled first.

D:

The router’s route table cannot force a disabled switchport to transmit Ethernet frames. The local interface state is the immediate blocker.

Question 32

On a switchport configured for full duplex, an engineer sees rising interface output drops with no CRC or collision increases during peak traffic. What is the most relevant next investigation?

  1. Change the device management hostname to a shorter value.
  2. Check interface utilization, queue congestion and QoS policy rather than assuming faulty copper.
  3. Disable the IP routing process to free the forwarding table.
  4. Replace the cable because any output drop must be an electrical checksum error.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Output drops without Layer 1 corruption often indicate congestion or an egress queue resource limit when traffic exceeds the port’s available service rate. Inspect load, queue statistics and QoS behavior. Faulty cabling can cause different symptoms, but the given counters do not directly establish a damaged physical link.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The hostname is presentation metadata and cannot control the amount of frame traffic waiting for egress transmission. It is unrelated to queue occupancy.

C:

Egress congestion is not solved by switching off routing; that would remove desired connectivity. The interface needs capacity or correct queue handling.

D:

Queue drops can occur on healthy links under oversubscription and are not synonymous with corrupted received frames. Verify utilization and queues before attributing them to a cable.

Question 33

A copper switch port is administratively enabled but shows `notconnect` despite a connected workstation. Both ends use supported 1000BASE-T ports. Where should troubleshooting begin?

  1. Change the workstation DNS server address.
  2. Check cable continuity, connector seating, interface power and link negotiation.
  3. Add a static ARP mapping for the workstation.
  4. Change the router default route to a lower administrative distance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An operationally down physical Ethernet port indicates no usable link signaling has been established. Inspect the copper cable pairs, connectors and partner interface, then verify the administrative state and negotiated speed. Default gateways and DNS are upper-layer services that cannot establish electrical carrier when the link itself is absent.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Name resolution begins after IP connectivity; DNS does not control Ethernet pulses or link negotiation. A dead copper link cannot be repaired by resolver changes.

C:

ARP maps reachable local IPv4 neighbors to MAC addresses, but a mapping cannot make a disconnected Ethernet PHY negotiate. Physical signaling must first work.

D:

Administrative distance influences preference among Layer 3 routes, but it is irrelevant before the switch and workstation establish a physical Ethernet connection. The link is not up.

Question 34

A copper switch uplink is administratively up but reports frequent input CRC/FCS errors after a cable was crushed near a rack. VLAN membership and speed/duplex settings are verified. What should be examined?

  1. The DNS resolver records for internal application hosts.
  2. OSPF default-route redistribution on the border router.
  3. The physical cabling, connectors and interface signal path.
  4. Wireless encryption settings for remote clients.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

CRC/FCS errors indicate frames arriving with invalid checksums, consistent with corruption on a damaged cable or connector. Given correct duplex and VLAN configuration, checking and replacing the suspected cable is the direct fault isolation step. A cable tester and counter comparison after replacement provide stronger evidence than tuning upper-layer services.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS problems cause name resolution failures, not broken Ethernet frame checksums. A bad DNS entry cannot produce the cable-correlated CRC counter increase described.

B:

OSPF routing policy can affect reachability but does not change physical frame integrity on a locally damaged copper link. The failure is visible in interface counters independently of routing configuration.

D:

The problem occurs on a wired copper uplink with a suspected crushed cable. Modifying Wi-Fi security cannot repair physical frame corruption along this interface.

Question 35

A network technician sees repeated `giants` on an Ethernet interface carrying unexpected oversized frames. Endpoints use standard 1500-byte MTU, and a new encapsulation method was enabled on one side. Which mismatch is worth verifying?

  1. Raise the OSPF hello timer to the maximum value.
  2. Change only the DNS search domain on the client.
  3. Compare the actual frame/MTU requirements and interface encapsulation on both sides.
  4. Disable DHCP snooping on every switch.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Giant frame counters can indicate receiving frames larger than the interface’s acceptable size. Encapsulation adds overhead, and different supported MTU configurations can produce inconsistent acceptance. Inspect actual packet size, device platform MTU behavior and the configured encapsulation rather than immediately changing a routing metric.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF timers affect neighbor discovery, not the Ethernet interface’s maximum acceptable frame size. A timer adjustment cannot correct giant frame reception.

B:

DNS search behavior changes application name resolution, but not Ethernet frame length or supported encapsulation overhead. It cannot fix giant counters.

D:

DHCP snooping validates DHCP messages and bindings; it is not a generic Ethernet frame-size control. The oversized-frame symptom exists independently of DHCP lease traffic.

Question 36

A switch uplink has zero CRC/FCS errors but rising input queue drops during a brief burst of many simultaneous flows. The port link is stable and has no collision count. Which next diagnosis follows from those counters?

  1. Replace the optical module because any input drop is necessarily an FCS checksum failure.
  2. Increase the STP bridge priority because that directly enlarges ingress packet buffers.
  3. Inspect ingress buffer utilization, microburst behavior and platform queue/resource limits instead of assuming corrupted cabling.
  4. Change all DNS servers because name resolution consumes the hardware input queue.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Input queue drops can arise when arriving frames exceed the available buffering or processing capacity even though every accepted frame has a valid checksum. A high-rate microburst may exceed the ingress service rate temporarily and drop healthy traffic. Examine platform-specific queue counters, traffic peaks and QoS or capacity before replacing an otherwise healthy cable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Input queue resource drops are not synonymous with CRC corruption. Zero FCS errors and a stable link point toward buffering rather than damaged optics.

B:

Bridge priority influences Layer 2 root election, not switch buffer allocation. The indicated symptom is local ingress congestion.

D:

DNS configuration does not explain the observed burst-linked queue resource drops for arbitrary traffic. Inspect traffic and port resource counters.

Question 37

A network port is up and passing traffic but displays many `runts` after a malfunctioning half-duplex hub was connected. Which observation best explains a runt?

  1. A received Ethernet frame shorter than the minimum legal frame size, often associated with malformed transmission.
  2. An ACL dropping a packet after a port-number comparison.
  3. A normal small TCP acknowledgment packet carried in a properly padded Ethernet frame.
  4. A large IPv6 packet fragmented by the forwarding router.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Runt frames are shorter than the minimum Ethernet frame length and are commonly associated with errors, collisions or a faulty transmitter. The half-duplex hub is a plausible source requiring physical/link diagnosis. A runt is not an IP packet with a short TCP payload; the Ethernet frame itself violates the size threshold.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An ACL can deny traffic based on header fields but does not make a received Ethernet frame physically too short. This counter points to link/framing validity.

C:

Even a short transport payload is encapsulated in an Ethernet frame meeting the minimum length through padding. It is not automatically counted as a runt.

D:

Large packets or fragments relate to MTU and fragmentation behavior, not short malformed Ethernet frames. A giant/fragment is different from an undersized runt.

Question 38

A switch-to-host interface is up, but counters show late collisions and CRC errors under load. One side is forced to full duplex and the other negotiates half duplex. What should be corrected?

  1. Enable PortFast on both ends as a duplex override.
  2. Increase the router default-route administrative distance.
  3. Configure compatible speed and duplex behavior on both link partners.
  4. Create a new DHCP scope for the same VLAN.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A duplex mismatch causes one endpoint to treat the link as collision-free full duplex while the half-duplex side uses collision detection, causing performance loss and error counters. Matching auto-negotiation or consistent supported manual speed/duplex settings resolves the fundamental incompatibility. Verify counters after making the change rather than disabling error reporting.

Incorrect Answers

A:

PortFast affects STP edge-port state transition, not speed or duplex mechanics. It cannot align an autonegotiating partner with an interface forced to incompatible duplex operation.

B:

Route source preference does not affect duplex negotiation or Ethernet CRC/collision counters on a local physical interface. The observed errors originate before packets reach the IP route selection process.

D:

DHCP leases supply IP addressing, but CRC and late-collision counters measure link transmission errors. Changing DHCP policy would leave the mismatched Ethernet PHY settings unchanged.

Question 39

A link is up at 100 Mb/s but both ends support 1 Gb/s; one endpoint was manually forced to 100 Mb/s for testing. There is no cabling fault. What should be addressed to recover Gigabit speed?

  1. Add more DNS A records for the endpoint.
  2. Align interface speed and duplex settings and allow compatible negotiation.
  3. Lower the IP route administrative distance on the switch.
  4. Increase the VLAN ID from 100 to 1000.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Ethernet ports negotiate a common supported operational speed or use explicitly compatible settings. A forced 100-Mb/s configuration can limit the link even with Gigabit-capable hardware. Restore compatible auto-negotiation or supported speed/duplex on both partners, then confirm actual operational status rather than reading capability alone.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Name records support host lookup but do not control port signaling. The port stays at its negotiated speed regardless of how many DNS records exist.

C:

Route preference changes which Layer 3 next hop is selected, not the physical speed negotiated by link partners. The bottleneck exists before routing.

D:

VLAN identification is unrelated to the Ethernet physical link speed. Changing a VLAN number cannot make the PHY negotiate from Fast Ethernet to Gigabit.

Question 40

An application transfers large business reports reliably over congested WAN links and requires ordered delivery and retransmission when data is lost. Which transport protocol matches those needs?

  1. UDP without any reliability mechanism in the application.
  2. ARP requests because they provide end-to-end packet sequencing.
  3. TCP, with sequence numbers, acknowledgments and retransmission.
  4. ICMP echo requests as the report data transport.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

TCP establishes a reliable byte stream, orders data using sequence numbers and retransmits missing segments. Those mechanisms fit the report-transfer requirement when loss and reordering must not corrupt the application stream. Reliability has latency and overhead trade-offs; choosing TCP does not guarantee a fast link, but it supplies the needed transport semantics.

Incorrect Answers

A:

UDP datagrams have no inherent acknowledgment, retransmission or ordering guarantee. That simplicity suits traffic where timely delivery outweighs loss recovery, not this strict reliable file-transfer requirement.

B:

ARP resolves a local IPv4 next-hop MAC address and does not carry ordered application data. Its local-link neighbor mapping is unrelated to reliable WAN payload transfer.

D:

ICMP is used for diagnostics and control messaging, not an ordered, reliable application stream. Ping reachability cannot replace a transport session that detects and retransmits missing business report segments.