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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 5

Question 40

An application transfers large business reports reliably over congested WAN links and requires ordered delivery and retransmission when data is lost. Which transport protocol matches those needs?

  1. UDP without any reliability mechanism in the application.
  2. ARP requests because they provide end-to-end packet sequencing.
  3. TCP, with sequence numbers, acknowledgments and retransmission.
  4. ICMP echo requests as the report data transport.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

TCP establishes a reliable byte stream, orders data using sequence numbers and retransmits missing segments. Those mechanisms fit the report-transfer requirement when loss and reordering must not corrupt the application stream. Reliability has latency and overhead trade-offs; choosing TCP does not guarantee a fast link, but it supplies the needed transport semantics.

Incorrect Answers

A:

UDP datagrams have no inherent acknowledgment, retransmission or ordering guarantee. That simplicity suits traffic where timely delivery outweighs loss recovery, not this strict reliable file-transfer requirement.

B:

ARP resolves a local IPv4 next-hop MAC address and does not carry ordered application data. Its local-link neighbor mapping is unrelated to reliable WAN payload transfer.

D:

ICMP is used for diagnostics and control messaging, not an ordered, reliable application stream. Ping reachability cannot replace a transport session that detects and retransmits missing business report segments.

Question 41

A monitoring tool sees TCP packets with sequence numbers, acknowledgments and a receive-window value. Which primary transport capability is being observed?

  1. A UDP datagram delivery guarantee enforced by destination port.
  2. ARP resolution of the destination Ethernet MAC.
  3. Reliable ordered data transport and receiver-advertised flow control.
  4. An IP Time-to-Live calculation for loop avoidance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

TCP sequence numbers order a byte stream, acknowledgments report received data and the advertised window limits how much unacknowledged data a sender can send without exceeding receiver capacity. Congestion control is additional, distinct behavior. UDP does not provide this integrated reliability and sliding-window flow control in its basic datagram header.

Incorrect Answers

A:

UDP ports identify application endpoints but do not create native sequence, acknowledgment or receiver window semantics. Reliability would need an application-level design.

B:

ARP resolves an IPv4 neighbor address on one link; it does not track TCP byte streams or provide end-to-end flow control. The described fields are TCP transport headers.

D:

TTL limits how long IPv4 packets can traverse routers. It does not acknowledge ordered bytes or advertise TCP receiver buffer space.

Question 42

A network administrator finds one application uses UDP destination port 53 for short DNS queries while the same resolver sometimes uses TCP when response handling requires it. What conclusion is accurate?

  1. DNS can use only UDP because it is a name-resolution protocol.
  2. DNS is an application protocol that can use UDP or TCP; the observed transport depends on transaction needs.
  3. All TCP/53 traffic must be HTTP rather than DNS.
  4. A port number determines whether IPv4 routing uses static or dynamic routes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The application-layer DNS service is distinct from its underlying transport. Small ordinary queries often use UDP/53, while TCP/53 is also supported for operations or response cases needing reliable streams. Seeing both transports does not by itself indicate two different DNS products or a security attack; evaluate the specific packet type and resolver policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

UDP is common for ordinary queries, but DNS also uses TCP in supported circumstances. Rejecting every TCP/53 flow would break legitimate resolver operations even though the application is still DNS.

C:

TCP port 53 is associated with DNS over TCP, not automatically HTTP. Application identity cannot be inferred as HTTP just because a reliable transport is present.

D:

Destination port may inform policy filtering but does not change the normal longest-prefix IP forwarding decision. TCP versus UDP choices are transport concerns, separate from routing-protocol selection.

Question 43

A server uses TCP sockets with a listening port, and several simultaneous clients connect to that same service. Which tuple uniquely distinguishes established flows?

  1. The source/destination IP addresses and source/destination TCP port numbers, along with transport protocol.
  2. The DNS hostname of the server and its default gateway MAC.
  3. Only the client source MAC address.
  4. Only the server destination TCP port.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A TCP connection is identified by its endpoint address and port combinations, allowing a server to accept multiple sessions on one listening port. Distinct client source ports or addresses keep the connection state separate. A destination port alone names the service but does not identify an individual established session.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Hostnames help initial name resolution and gateway MACs serve local next-hop forwarding. Neither substitutes for TCP address and port tuple state used by sockets.

C:

A MAC address identifies a local-link device, which can change along routed paths. It is not the end-to-end TCP flow identifier across networks.

D:

Multiple clients can connect to the same service port at the same time. Without the client IP/port pair, the server could not distinguish the individual sessions.

Question 44

A voice service prefers dropping an outdated audio sample to waiting for a delayed retransmission. It handles loss tolerance and jitter buffering at the application layer. Which transport choice is typical?

  1. ARP because its packets are connectionless.
  2. UDP datagrams to avoid transport-layer retransmission latency.
  3. HTTP GET requests as a replacement for UDP transport.
  4. TCP because it never retransmits missing segments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

UDP offers connectionless datagram delivery with minimal transport state and no built-in retransmission or ordering guarantees. For real-time media, stale voice samples are usually less valuable than timely new samples, so the application can handle timing and limited loss. RTP or application logic can provide sequencing if needed; UDP itself does not promise perfect audio.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ARP discovers local IPv4 link-layer neighbors and is not an end-to-end transport for voice audio. It cannot carry application RTP-style media between arbitrary routed hosts.

C:

HTTP is an application protocol and generally relies on underlying transport mechanisms; a GET method is not a transport replacement. The scenario asks for datagram versus reliable-stream behavior.

D:

TCP specifically uses acknowledgments and retransmission to provide reliable ordered delivery. Head-of-line waiting and retransmission delays conflict with the case’s preference for timely audio over late recovery.

Question 45

A network capture shows a client sends a SYN, receives SYN-ACK, then sends ACK before any application data is exchanged. What protocol behavior does this show?

  1. TCP three-way connection establishment.
  2. An OSPF neighbor database exchange.
  3. A UDP connection request with built-in session state.
  4. An IPv4 ARP probe followed by an ARP reply.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The SYN, SYN-ACK and ACK sequence is the standard TCP connection handshake before reliable byte-stream data transfer. It synchronizes initial sequence numbers and confirms that both endpoints are available for the session. UDP has no comparable built-in three-way connection setup, so the observed flags identify a transport-layer handshake.

Incorrect Answers

B:

OSPF exchanges routing control packets and link-state data, not transport SYN/ACK flags to establish a client application connection. The packet capture directly identifies TCP header fields.

C:

UDP does not use SYN or ACK TCP flags and has no mandatory three-message connection establishment. An application may implement its own messages over UDP, but it would not be this standard TCP flag exchange.

D:

ARP has request and reply message types for local MAC discovery, but no TCP SYN/ACK flags and no three-way transport handshake. It solves next-hop address resolution rather than session establishment.

Question 46

A firewall permits a client TCP SYN toward a server, but a packet capture repeatedly shows SYN packets with no SYN-ACK returning. The firewall has no application-layer logs yet. Which network-level condition should be checked before declaring authentication failure?

  1. Confirm only that the server application password is correct; a lost SYN-ACK proves a login denial.
  2. Assume the three-way TCP handshake has succeeded because at least one SYN was transmitted.
  3. Disable TCP retransmissions so the client can connect without the missing response.
  4. Verify the reverse path and stateful filtering for the server’s SYN-ACK; TCP transport establishment has not completed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The client’s repeated SYN messages indicate it has not received a valid SYN-ACK for the connection attempt. That can result from missing reverse routing, a stateful policy issue, a non-listening server or other reachability failure before application authentication begins. Check the server response and return path rather than diagnosing invalid user credentials from an incomplete TCP handshake.

Incorrect Answers

A:

User authentication occurs after transport establishment for many application protocols. The missing handshake response is not itself a credential-check result.

B:

A SYN transmission is only the opening request. A normal established connection requires the SYN-ACK and completing ACK exchange.

C:

Retransmission cannot be removed as a substitute for a reachable TCP peer and reverse path. The absence of SYN-ACK must be diagnosed at transport and network layers.

Question 47

A subnet plan for Distribution Site lists 10.71.121.231/26. Which IPv4 address is the directed broadcast for this specific subnet?

  1. 10.71.121.255
  2. 10.71.121.192
  3. 10.71.121.254
  4. 10.71.122.0

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The prefix /26 defines a contiguous 64-address block starting at 10.71.121.192. Its last address, 10.71.121.255, has every host bit set, making it the directed broadcast for the indicated network. This differs from the first usable host, the default gateway choice, or the next subnet boundary.

Incorrect Answers

B:

10.71.121.192 sets all /26 host bits to zero and represents the network ID. It can appear in route tables, but a directed broadcast uses the same network bits with all remaining host bits set.

C:

10.71.121.254 is a usable host immediately before the broadcast for 10.71.121.192/26; it does not set every host bit to one. Assignable addresses and the directed broadcast are distinct even if they are numerically adjacent.

D:

10.71.122.0 is the next block boundary, one greater than this subnet’s broadcast 10.71.121.255. That address identifies a different subnet and is not the final address of the given /26 prefix.

Question 48

Finance Floor routes traffic to host 172.30.124.250/22. Which IPv4 address is the network ID of the host subnet, rather than a host, broadcast, or adjacent subnet?

  1. 172.30.124.250
  2. 172.30.128.0
  3. 172.30.127.255
  4. 172.30.124.0

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The /22 prefix leaves 10 host bits, so the block contains 1024 consecutive IPv4 addresses. Clearing those host bits in 172.30.124.250 yields network address 172.30.124.0. This is the identifier routers and subnet tables use for the whole prefix, not the address of an individual device or the directed broadcast.

Incorrect Answers

A:

172.30.124.250 identifies the particular configured host inside 172.30.124.0/22; retaining its nonzero host bits cannot name the entire subnet. A route or subnet declaration needs the network boundary 172.30.124.0, not this endpoint address.

B:

172.30.128.0 is the start of the next /22 block after 172.30.127.255. It could identify a distinct adjacent subnet, but the given host 172.30.124.250 lies in 172.30.124.0/22, so selecting it would place the device in the wrong network.

C:

172.30.127.255 is the final address in this /22 block and is its directed broadcast, not its network identifier. The question asks for the address with all host bits cleared; the broadcast has those bits all set.

Question 49

A DHCP team defines subnet 10.165.201.0/25 for a new lab. Which pair correctly identifies the first and last usable IPv4 host addresses for that subnet?

  1. 10.165.201.0 through 10.165.201.127.
  2. 10.165.201.1 through 10.165.201.254.
  3. 10.165.201.1 through 10.165.201.126.
  4. 10.165.201.128 through 10.165.201.255.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A /25 keeps the first 25 bits, leaving 7 host bits and 128 total addresses. The subnet begins at 10.165.201.0 and ends at directed broadcast 10.165.201.127, so ordinary endpoints can use .1 through .126. The next /25 starts at .128 and is not part of this lab.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first and last addresses identify the subnet and its directed broadcast, not ordinary host endpoints. Reserving both boundaries leaves 126 usable addresses in a conventional /25.

B:

This combines addresses from two adjacent /25 subnets within the surrounding /24. A /25 confines the assigned range to .0–.127, not both halves.

D:

Those addresses belong to the second /25 of the surrounding /24, not the announced 10.165.201.0/25. The subnet boundary cannot be moved by selecting a different host range.

Question 50

Guest Wi-Fi requires at least 28 usable IPv4 host addresses in one conventional subnet, excluding the network and broadcast addresses. Which of the following is the MOST specific prefix meeting that capacity?

  1. /27
  2. /28
  3. /26
  4. /29

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A conventional IPv4 /27 subnet provides 32 total addresses and 30 usable host addresses. This meets the stated 28-host requirement without wasting as many addresses as a shorter prefix. Verify actual available address space and reserve any infrastructure addresses before deployment; the question asks for minimum required subnet capacity.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A /28 block provides only 14 conventional usable IPv4 host addresses. That is smaller than the requested 28 hosts, so this tempting tighter subnet would run out of addresses.

C:

A /26 subnet has 62 usable addresses and could fit the hosts, but consumes twice the /27 address space. The question specifically asks for the MOST specific prefix that still meets capacity, which is /27.

D:

With /29, only 6 usable addresses remain after the network and broadcast. It is an even smaller block than /28 and cannot satisfy this host count.