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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 26

Question 250

A Cisco router shows `O E2 10.50.138.0/24 [110/20] via 192.0.2.20`. The operations team is unsure whether this prefix is an ordinary OSPF intra-area route or an external route. What does the code identify?

  1. A directly connected network because all OSPF entries use C.
  2. An OSPF inter-area route marked O IA.
  3. An OSPF external type-2 route, rather than an ordinary intra-area O route.
  4. A static route with administrative distance 110.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cisco IOS prefixes route-table codes with their routing protocol and route class. `O E2` identifies an OSPF external type-2 route redistributed into the OSPF domain, while `[110/20]` expresses administrative distance and displayed metric. The external designation is independent of the next-hop address shown after `via`.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Directly connected networks use the C route code. OSPF-learned destinations have O-based codes, with E2 distinguishing an external route class.

B:

The inter-area code is O IA, representing routing across OSPF areas. The E2 suffix specifically indicates an external type-2 route.

D:

A static route uses the S code and may have configurable administrative distance. The O E2 designation identifies the route source even if its displayed distance is 110.

Question 251

A routing table shows `O 10.51.114.0/26 [110/30] via 192.0.2.21`. The network operator must explain why another OSPF path with cost 16 for the exact same prefix is preferred when both paths are eligible. Which field determines that preference?

  1. The second octet of each next-hop IP decides which OSPF path is better.
  2. The administrative distance 110 guarantees equal-cost multipath despite the different costs.
  3. The route with the higher OSPF cost is always preferred for availability.
  4. The OSPF metric: cost 16 is lower than cost 30 for the identical destination prefix.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The two OSPF routes cover exactly the same /26 and have the same protocol source and administrative distance 110. OSPF therefore evaluates path cost, preferring a lower eligible total cost of 16 over 30. Administrative distance would matter for different sources competing for that same prefix, not between these same-protocol alternatives.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The next-hop address is where a packet is forwarded, not the OSPF cost-comparison rule. A numerically larger or smaller IP does not establish route preference.

B:

Both candidates can have distance 110 while their metrics differ. Equal-cost multipath depends on equal eligible routing metrics, not merely the same administrative distance.

C:

OSPF treats smaller valid path cost as better. A higher-cost route may be used after preferred paths disappear, not because high cost is the primary selection criterion.

Question 252

An engineer sees `D EX 10.52.134.0/24 [170/3072] via 192.0.2.22` on a Cisco router. The internal team wants to know why the entry is not categorized as internal EIGRP. What indicates its source class?

  1. The `D EX` code marks a route learned as external EIGRP.
  2. The code `D EX` means this is a directly connected Ethernet network.
  3. It is an OSPF external type-2 route because the metric is 3072.
  4. The route is static because its metric is not zero.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cisco IOS distinguishes EIGRP internal and external route origins with different table codes. `D EX` identifies an external EIGRP route, and the bracketed numbers show administrative distance 170 and the displayed composite metric. Neither the destination address nor the `via` next hop determines whether a route is internal or external EIGRP.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A directly attached IPv4 network normally has the C route code. D EX denotes a route learned through EIGRP as an external destination.

C:

OSPF external routes use O E1 or O E2 codes. A metric number by itself cannot redefine the routing-protocol origin shown by the route code.

D:

Static routes use the S code, and a displayed metric is not the reliable source identifier. This route explicitly advertises an EIGRP external origin.

Question 253

A router prints `O 10.4.0.0/16 [110/35] via 192.0.2.5` in `show ip route`. In the square brackets, what do 110 and 35 represent?

  1. 110 is the prefix length and 35 is the outgoing interface index.
  2. 110 is the OSPF area number and 35 is the local VLAN ID.
  3. 110 means the route expires after 110 seconds and 35 is the destination TCP port.
  4. 110 is the administrative distance of the route source, and 35 is the OSPF metric or cost.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cisco routing table display commonly uses `[administrative distance/metric]` following a route code. The value 110 is the normal administrative distance for OSPF, used in competition with other route sources to the same prefix. The second value is the routing protocol metric for comparing suitable OSPF paths, not an IP subnet mask.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An IPv4 prefix cannot have a 110-bit length, and the route already shows `/16`. The bracketed pair is routing-source preference and protocol cost, not a mask or interface number.

B:

OSPF area and VLAN identifiers are separate control settings not encoded in this bracket format. The line displays a route’s administrative distance and metric.

C:

The route table notation is unrelated to application-layer TCP ports or a generic expiration countdown. It describes how the route was selected.

Question 254

A router displays `L 192.0.2.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0` alongside `C 192.0.2.0/24`. Which distinction explains the L entry?

  1. It is the local host route for the router’s own interface IPv4 address, rather than the connected subnet route.
  2. It is a learned RIP route to an external subnet that happens to use the same address.
  3. It is an IPv6 multicast route whose address is displayed in dotted-decimal.
  4. It is a default route to every destination because local routes always have the widest mask.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cisco route output may include a local /32 for the exact address assigned to an interface. It allows the router to identify packets destined for itself on that address, whereas the connected /24 describes reachability of neighbors on the subnet. Both can appear when the interface is operational, but they serve different forwarding roles.

Incorrect Answers

B:

RIP routes use an R code rather than L and would not represent the router’s own assigned interface address. The /32 local host entry is created from interface addressing.

C:

The entry contains an ordinary IPv4 /32 address, not an IPv6 multicast prefix. Cisco’s L code here identifies a local host address.

D:

A /32 host route is the most specific possible IPv4 prefix, not a catch-all. The default route is 0.0.0.0/0, the least-specific prefix.

Question 255

A Cisco switch’s SVI Vlan60 has IPv4 address 10.60.0.1/24 and previously installed `C 10.60.0.0/24`. The VLAN loses its last eligible active Layer 2 forwarding member and the SVI goes down. What route-table effect follows?

  1. The connected route remains permanently installed regardless of interface state.
  2. The same entry changes automatically to an OSPF route without an adjacency.
  3. The connected 10.60.0.0/24 entry normally disappears from the active routing table while the SVI is down.
  4. The switch changes the connected prefix into the default 0.0.0.0/0 route.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A connected route exists when its underlying Layer 3 interface and line protocol are operational. Losing the SVI’s active Layer 2 support can bring the interface down and withdraw the associated connected prefix. Merely leaving the IPv4 address in the saved configuration does not guarantee the route remains installed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A configured address is not sufficient when the interface or SVI line protocol is down. The active route depends on operational reachability.

B:

OSPF origin is not assigned when a connected interface fails. Dynamic routing would need its own configured process and valid learned information.

D:

Interface loss does not convert a /24 network into a universal catch-all. A default route requires an independent route source and eligible next hop.

Question 256

A branch route table includes `S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 203.0.113.20`. A connected route to 10.70.0.0/16 also exists, and a packet is destined for 10.70.8.20. Which entry wins?

  1. The connected 10.70.0.0/16 route, because it is more specific than the installed /0 default.
  2. The static default always wins because its administrative distance is 1.
  3. The router discards the packet because the default route is configured.
  4. Both entries must receive every packet as duplicate copies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The star on a static default route means it can serve as a candidate gateway of last resort. Destination 10.70.8.20 matches the connected /16, so longest-prefix forwarding chooses that direct network instead of the 0.0.0.0/0 fallback. The default is selected only when no more specific eligible route covers the address.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Administrative distance is not compared across different destination prefix lengths during forwarding. A matching /16 is preferred over a /0 even if the default has low distance.

C:

An installed default route does not prohibit more-specific forwarding. The connected prefix makes the destination reachable through a local interface.

D:

These are unequal-length matching prefixes, not equal-cost routes for the same prefix. A default route does not create duplicate forwarding beside a specific /16 entry.

Question 257

A route table line begins with code `S` before destination `10.43.156.0/22`. Under standard Cisco IOS route-code conventions, which source category does that code identify?

  1. local interface host address
  2. static route
  3. directly connected network
  4. OSPF-learned route

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cisco IOS routing tables prefix routes with a code identifying how the route entered the routing information base. Code `S` designates a static route, so it is an origin classification rather than a measure of link speed. The prefix and bracketed attributes must be read separately for forwarding decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Code `L` identifies a local interface host address rather than the observed `S` route. These code labels have distinct meanings even when their destinations overlap.

C:

Code `C` identifies a directly connected network rather than the observed `S` route. These code labels have distinct meanings even when their destinations overlap.

D:

Code `O` identifies a OSPF-learned route rather than the observed `S` route. These code labels have distinct meanings even when their destinations overlap.

Question 258

A Cisco route display includes `S 10.30.31.0/24 [1/0] via 192.0.2.11, GigabitEthernet0/0`. Which part identifies the NEXT-HOP IP to which the router forwards packets after selecting this entry?

  1. `192.0.2.11`.
  2. `1`.
  3. `10.30.31.0/24`.
  4. `0`.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The `via 192.0.2.11` field specifies the neighbor that receives forwarded packets when this route is selected. The prefix 10.30.31.0/24 describes which destinations use the route, and the bracketed values are route-selection attributes. Next-hop resolution also depends on reachability through the indicated outgoing interface.

Incorrect Answers

B:

1 is the first bracketed route preference value (administrative distance). It influences which competing route source is installed, but it is not a routable next-hop IP address.

C:

10.30.31.0/24 is the route’s destination network prefix, not a next-hop neighbor. It describes which destination addresses match the entry, while `via` points to 192.0.2.11.

D:

0 represents the route metric in this exhibit, not a next-hop address. Metrics describe path cost within a protocol or configured route; the neighbor appears after `via`.

Question 259

A packet arrives at a router destined for interface address 192.0.2.75. The router’s table has `L 192.0.2.75/32` and `C 192.0.2.0/24`. Which route conveys the strongest destination match, and why?

  1. The connected /24 must win because C has lower numerical code than L.
  2. The default /0 must be used for all local interface traffic.
  3. The local /32 matches the single interface address more specifically than the connected /24.
  4. Both prefixes require OSPF cost comparison before traffic can reach the router.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Longest-prefix matching prefers a /32 when the destination is exactly its one IPv4 address. In this case it is also a local receiver entry, indicating traffic for the router’s own interface rather than transit to another host. The C /24 remains relevant to neighbors elsewhere on the subnet.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Route codes are not ordered alphabetically to select a forwarding destination. The matching /32 is more specific and identifies the local router address.

B:

A default route is less specific than any matching /32 or /24 and is irrelevant here. The router already has a precise local destination entry.

D:

These entries are local and connected, not competing OSPF paths. A destination for an interface address does not depend on an OSPF cost tie.

Question 260

A Cisco routing table contains `O IA 10.70.0.0/16 [110/40] via 192.0.2.5`. What does the `O IA` route code indicate?

  1. It is an EIGRP internal route because IA abbreviates internal autonomous system.
  2. It is an IPv6 address assignment rather than a routing-table route.
  3. It is a locally configured static route because the path includes a next-hop address.
  4. The prefix is an OSPF inter-area route learned through OSPF area routing information.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cisco IOS route codes identify the origin and kind of an installed route. O identifies OSPF, while IA indicates an inter-area route rather than an intra-area O entry. The distance/metric brackets still describe route preference and OSPF cost separately from that category marker.

Incorrect Answers

A:

EIGRP routes normally use the D origin code. The OSPF IA suffix specifically distinguishes inter-area information in the OSPF route display.

B:

The line contains an IPv4 prefix and OSPF route attributes. Interface IPv6 addressing uses a different family of commands and outputs.

C:

Dynamic routing entries can also display next hops. The protocol code, not merely the presence of a via address, identifies the route source.