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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 42

Question 410

A DHCP server has sufficient free addresses but clients in a separate VLAN cannot reach it because DHCP discovery is initially broadcast within their local subnet. What network feature is needed on the routing boundary?

  1. A static DNS A record for every client.
  2. An authorized DHCP relay agent configured to forward requests to the server.
  3. A CDP neighbor command between the clients and router.
  4. A larger client subnet mask without changing the router.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

DHCP clients typically begin IPv4 address discovery with local broadcasts that routers do not forward as ordinary broadcasts. A relay receives the client request and forwards it toward the DHCP server using routable IP communication, preserving relevant relay information. Its configuration belongs on the client VLAN gateway or supported relay interface.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS maps names to addresses but does not transport the DHCP broadcast to another subnet. The clients need a lease transaction.

C:

CDP is local device discovery, not the mechanism for forwarding DHCP messages to a remote server. The relay feature is required.

D:

Altering the client subnet definition can create addressing conflicts and does not implement cross-subnet DHCP relay. The existing routing boundary still separates broadcasts.

Question 411

A help desk has `printer.example` pointed to an IPv4 address, but IPv6-only clients also need to resolve the printer’s global IPv6 address. Which record type should be present?

  1. An AAAA DNS record containing the printer’s IPv6 address.
  2. An IPv4 A record with dotted-decimal address only.
  3. A PTR record used as the only forward mapping.
  4. An MX record naming a mail exchanger.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

DNS AAAA records map hostnames to 128-bit IPv6 addresses. An A record holds an IPv4 address, so IPv6-only clients need an appropriate AAAA answer and routed IPv6 connectivity. Publishing a record does not guarantee the device has IPv6 enabled or reachable; validate both components.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A records contain IPv4 addresses and do not encode a full IPv6 destination. They cannot directly satisfy the IPv6-only lookup request.

C:

PTR records are typically used for reverse IP-to-name lookup. The request is forward hostname-to-IPv6 resolution, which calls for AAAA.

D:

MX records select mail-handling servers for a domain and do not generally resolve a printer hostname into an IPv6 interface address.

Question 412

A host has a cached DNS A record that points to an old server IP after a migration. The authoritative record was corrected, but some clients still connect to the previous address. Which DNS behavior explains the delay?

  1. NTP stratum mismatch preventing the IP packet from changing.
  2. A permanent OSPF route lock based on the old hostname.
  3. An Ethernet MAC-table entry never ages out.
  4. Caching under the record’s time-to-live until the cached entry expires or is cleared.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

DNS caches can retain an earlier valid response for its stated TTL, reducing query volume but delaying visibility of subsequent authoritative changes. A migration should consider TTL planning and cache invalidation. A changed record does not force every resolver or endpoint to update immediately while its cache is still valid.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Time-source hierarchy does not determine DNS record values or which server IP the hostname resolves to. DNS caching is the stated mechanism.

B:

OSPF routes IP prefixes and does not cache DNS A-record answers as part of SPF computation. The symptom is stale hostname resolution.

C:

MAC aging concerns local switch egress ports, not application name records. A DNS TTL can expire while the Ethernet path stays healthy.

Question 413

A DHCP client is renewing an existing IPv4 lease and wishes to continue using its current address if the DHCP server agrees. Which process is relevant?

  1. DHCP lease renewal using a request to the appropriate DHCP server.
  2. An NTP clock adjustment to reset the lease state.
  3. A CDP advertisement from the default gateway.
  4. A DNS AAAA query for the IPv4 address.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

DHCP clients maintain time-limited configuration leases and periodically request renewal before expiry. The server can confirm the lease, extend its lifetime or direct a reconfiguration depending on state. ARP checks neighbor reachability but does not renew a lease or update its expiration timer.

Incorrect Answers

B:

NTP synchronizes clocks but does not exchange DHCP lease messages. Lease renewal uses the DHCP protocol itself.

C:

CDP provides local device discovery and has no authority to renew DHCP client address leases. The DHCP server controls the lease.

D:

An AAAA record resolves IPv6 addresses for a hostname. It does not extend a DHCPv4 lease or negotiate client parameters.

Question 414

A client sends a DNS query to its recursive resolver for a public hostname. The resolver has no valid cached answer. Which behavior is characteristic of recursive DNS?

  1. The resolver obtains an answer through the DNS hierarchy, then returns it and can cache it according to TTL.
  2. The resolver assigns the client a new IPv4 lease before answering.
  3. The resolver automatically creates a default static route on each Internet router.
  4. The resolver advertises Wi-Fi SSIDs over the LAN.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A recursive resolver acts on the client’s behalf to find the requested DNS data, following referrals or using configured upstreams. Successful results can be cached for their permitted TTL to reduce repeated queries. This is distinct from DHCP assignment, which configures the client’s network interface rather than providing name records.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DNS queries do not require the resolver to run a DHCP lease transaction. Address assignment and name lookup are distinct services.

C:

Recursive DNS discovers name records but cannot control global routing tables. Packet forwarding follows independently configured routing policy.

D:

SSID advertisements are 802.11 radio management functions, not DNS recursive lookups. The requested service is name resolution.

Question 415

A desktop joins a network without any manually configured IPv4 parameters. It must obtain its address, mask, default router and DNS server list automatically. Which service provides these lease-based parameters?

  1. DHCPv4 from an authorized address pool and associated options.
  2. NTP synchronization with the gateway.
  3. CDP neighbor advertisements from the access switch.
  4. DNS recursive resolution of the desktop hostname.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

DHCPv4 can offer a client an IP lease along with subnet mask, default gateway and DNS resolver options. This avoids manually assigning every endpoint while allowing leases to be tracked and renewed. DNS itself translates names after an address is obtained; it is not the source of the client’s DHCP lease.

Incorrect Answers

B:

NTP maintains clock accuracy and does not allocate host IP addresses. A synchronized workstation may still have no valid IPv4 lease.

C:

CDP reveals nearby Cisco device information but does not hand a host the required DHCP network settings.

D:

DNS maps names to records but does not supply a dynamic IPv4 address lease, subnet mask or default gateway. DHCP provides those parameters.

Question 416

An administrator wants authenticated and encrypted SNMP monitoring rather than exposing the older community-string read values in plaintext. Which protocol version/security model is appropriate?

  1. SNMPv3 with suitable authentication and privacy (authPriv) configuration.
  2. Plain syslog over an untrusted UDP connection instead of SNMP polling.
  3. CDP neighbor advertisements carrying the monitoring password.
  4. SNMPv2c using a complex community string but no encryption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

SNMPv3 supports user-based authentication, message integrity and privacy encryption where configured. The authPriv security level is appropriate when the monitoring path must protect credentials and management values. Community-only older SNMP versions do not provide the same built-in cryptographic guarantees.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Syslog transports event messages rather than the same SNMP MIB queries. Unprotected transport also does not meet the SNMP privacy requirement.

C:

CDP is link-local discovery and is not an encrypted management telemetry or authentication protocol. Advertising credentials would increase risk.

D:

A long community string can make guessing harder but does not encrypt the management PDUs. It does not meet the specified authenticated encrypted monitoring requirement.

Question 417

A network operations system periodically polls switch interface counters and health metrics and needs access to standardized management objects. Which protocol fits this monitoring model?

  1. An 802.1Q tag assigned to a packet capture.
  2. SNMP manager polling managed devices for MIB/OID values.
  3. A DHCP DISCOVER from the monitoring server.
  4. A Telnet login session to every switch for user SSH authentication.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Simple Network Management Protocol exposes managed objects identified by OIDs, allowing an authorized manager to read supported interface, device and system variables. This is an operational monitoring channel rather than an interactive configuration shell. Permissions and SNMP version/security settings determine which information can be viewed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A VLAN tag identifies link-layer segmentation, not a request to read standardized management OIDs. The monitoring protocol is SNMP.

C:

DHCP discovers address lease services, not managed interface counters. It cannot retrieve SNMP MIB objects from the switch.

D:

Telnet is an interactive remote terminal protocol and does not provide SNMP object polling. It also lacks built-in traffic encryption.

Question 418

A switch must proactively alert an NMS when an interface goes down instead of waiting for the next periodic SNMP polling interval. Which SNMP mechanism is relevant?

  1. A NAT overload translation for UDP 161.
  2. Only periodic GET polling every ten minutes.
  3. A DNS CNAME update whenever the port changes state.
  4. An SNMP trap or supported notification sent toward the configured manager.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

SNMP notifications allow a managed device to send an event to a monitoring station when a specified condition occurs. Polling reads state on demand, while traps can signal events asynchronously. Delivery and security policy still need configuration, and a notification does not itself guarantee the interface is repaired.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Address translation could affect transport connectivity but does not originate the managed device’s alarm event. An SNMP notification mechanism is required.

B:

Polling may eventually reveal the down state but does not provide an immediate unsolicited alert at the time of failure. The case specifies proactive notification.

C:

DNS aliases are name resolution objects and are not operational interface event notifications. A link failure does not inherently change DNS records.

Question 419

A security team prohibits write operations through its network-monitoring SNMP account. Which policy distinction is necessary?

  1. Configure a larger access VLAN for the NMS.
  2. Assign the monitor a write-enabled community to simplify debugging.
  3. Provide read-only authorized SNMP views/permissions and deny unauthorized SET operations.
  4. Turn off every SNMP version, then continue polling the same OIDs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

SNMP can read variables and, for writable objects on supported platforms, issue SET operations that change management state. A monitoring-only identity should have read access to the required OIDs without broader write privileges. SNMPv3 users and views can help constrain permitted operations and exposed data.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VLAN scope influences network reachability but not whether the management identity can execute SNMP SET operations. Access rights must be controlled at the protocol/security layer.

B:

A write-enabled credential could allow state changes beyond the monitoring purpose. The case explicitly requires read-only least privilege.

D:

Disabling the service prevents both authorized reads and writes. The stated goal is selective read-only monitoring, not eliminating all telemetry.

Question 420

A monitoring tool queries a switch using an OID rooted in the interface MIB. What does an object identifier provide?

  1. The IPv4 default gateway selected by the switch routing table.
  2. The router’s OSPF process ID used to identify neighbors.
  3. A structured unique name for a management variable in the SNMP object hierarchy.
  4. An Ethernet VLAN identifier for the device management interface.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An SNMP OID identifies a specific managed object or scalar/table entry through a hierarchical numeric path. The MIB supplies the interpretation and type of that value. The manager can poll the supported OID when authorized; it is not a forwarding destination or an IPv4 next-hop address.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A default gateway is an IP routing decision, not the hierarchical identifier of an SNMP managed variable. OID syntax and IP routing have different purposes.

B:

An OSPF process ID configures a local routing process, not an SNMP object namespace. The OID identifies what the manager reads.

D:

VLAN IDs segregate Layer 2 frames and do not encode arbitrary management counters or device variables. An SNMP OID names a MIB object.