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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 1

Question 1

An access switch forwards local VLAN traffic correctly, but a department wants it to be the default gateway for three VLANs without adding an external router. What switching capability must its hardware and configuration support?

  1. A trunk port to the same Layer 2 switch without routed SVIs.
  2. Layer 3 switching with enabled SVIs or routed interfaces and IP routing.
  3. Spanning Tree PortFast enabled on all uplinks.
  4. Only a larger MAC address table on the existing Layer 2 switch.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A multilayer switch can route between subnets while also switching Ethernet frames within VLANs. It needs Layer 3 interfaces with gateway addresses and routing enabled, plus appropriate VLAN membership. Merely being a high-port-count Layer 2 switch does not create the control-plane and forwarding capability needed for inter-VLAN traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An 802.1Q trunk carries multiple VLANs over one link; it cannot substitute for a gateway that routes traffic between their IP prefixes. Trunking and routing solve different parts of the topology.

C:

PortFast can accelerate edge-port forwarding but does not supply routed interfaces or enable IP routing. Using it indiscriminately on switch interconnections can also weaken protection against bridging loops.

D:

MAC learning associates destination hardware addresses with ports inside a broadcast domain. It cannot select IP next hops between VLANs, so increasing the table capacity does not create the requested gateways.

Question 2

A security design must detect malicious packet sequences and actively prevent a known exploit from reaching an internal service. Which device capability must be enabled inline on the traffic path?

  1. A wireless access point broadcasting an SSID.
  2. A passive intrusion detection sensor that only generates alerts.
  3. An intrusion prevention system able to inspect and block matching traffic.
  4. An unmanaged Layer 2 Ethernet repeater.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An IPS evaluates network sessions or packet content against configured protections and can drop harmful traffic when it is placed inline. Detection alone is not enough: the requirement explicitly includes prevention before delivery to the internal server. Rule quality, decryption requirements and false positives still need operational review.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An AP provides radio association and bridges client traffic. Broadcasting a WLAN does not inspect exploit signatures and stop malicious sessions entering a separate server network.

B:

An IDS can identify suspicious traffic and notify an analyst but does not inherently block packets on the path. The stated preventive control requires an inline enforcement action.

D:

A simple repeater forwards physical signals without making application-security decisions. It cannot identify exploit patterns or enforce inline prevention rules.

Question 3

A campus has multiple routed subnets and needs a device that inspects destination IP prefixes, chooses a next hop from its routing table, and forwards packets between the subnets. Which network component supplies this function?

  1. An inline intrusion prevention system operating on signatures.
  2. A Layer 2 switch forwarding by learned destination MAC.
  3. A router forwarding by Layer 3 destination prefixes.
  4. A standalone wireless access point extending the SSID.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A router makes inter-network forwarding decisions using the destination IP address and the most appropriate matching route. It then resolves the next-hop adjacency and forwards the packet out the selected interface. Switching in a single VLAN does not substitute for a routed boundary between separate IPv4 or IPv6 prefixes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An IPS can inspect and block exploit traffic, but detecting malicious payloads is not the ordinary destination-prefix forwarding function being requested. The inter-subnet next hop is decided by routing.

B:

Layer 2 switching delivers Ethernet frames inside one broadcast domain using a MAC table. It does not ordinarily compare destination IP prefixes and select an inter-subnet next hop, which is the stated requirement.

D:

An AP associates wireless stations and bridges their frames to a wired network. Merely advertising a radio SSID cannot perform the specified enterprise IP-prefix route lookup between subnets.

Question 4

A warehouse has PoE-capable IP cameras but no power outlets near mounting points. What infrastructure function lets a switch supply network connectivity and power over the same compatible cabling?

  1. DHCP option 82 on the access switch.
  2. NAT overload on the distribution router.
  3. 802.1Q tagging on an ordinary non-PoE switch.
  4. Power over Ethernet on a switch and camera pair with a compatible power budget.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

PoE places DC power on designated Ethernet conductors while the link carries network data, avoiding a separate local power adapter for compatible devices. The switch must support the camera’s PoE class and have sufficient aggregate and per-port power budget. Data-link negotiation and cable quality remain relevant; PoE alone does not create routable IP addressing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Option 82 can relay access-network information to a DHCP server for address allocation policies. It does not inject DC power into the cable, which is the missing physical capability.

B:

Port address translation lets multiple inside IP sessions share public addressing but provides no electrical power on Ethernet wires. It would not resolve camera installation constraints at the endpoint.

C:

VLAN tagging distinguishes Layer 2 traffic classes on trunk links; it does not change the switch power circuitry. A data-only switch cannot power cameras merely by carrying tagged frames.

Question 5

A branch wireless design uses a central wireless LAN controller and lightweight access points. Which component normally coordinates WLAN policy and AP management across the site?

  1. An end-user laptop storing the Wi-Fi password.
  2. The DHCP server because it assigns each AP an IP address.
  3. The wireless LAN controller managing the associated access points.
  4. The default gateway router because it has an ARP table.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

In a controller-based WLAN, the wireless LAN controller supplies centralized configuration, control and policy coordination for managed APs. The APs provide the RF access link for clients, but central management belongs to the controller. The exact control/data-path split depends on the AP mode and architecture, so verify the intended forwarding mode.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A client device participates in a WLAN but does not coordinate all other APs and network-wide wireless policy. A saved password can establish client authentication; it is not centralized AP management.

B:

DHCP provides network addressing so APs can communicate, but lease assignment does not define SSIDs, radio policy or the controller association process. Address assignment and wireless control are distinct services.

D:

A router forwards IP traffic and maintains neighbor information, but that does not make it the WLAN control plane. The controller handles managed AP policy even when the router carries their management traffic.

Question 6

A retail store has several PoE cameras and phones. A network engineer must choose switch hardware that can actually power all connected devices, rather than merely supporting IP packets. Which specification is critical?

  1. The switch PoE budget and supported 802.3af/at/bt power classes on the intended ports.
  2. The IPv4 prefix length of the camera VLAN.
  3. The size of the switch MAC address forwarding table.
  4. The routing protocol administrative distance on the upstream router.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Power over Ethernet injects electrical power along compatible Ethernet cabling while carrying data. Each port and the entire switch must have enough negotiated wattage for the attached device class. A switch may have sufficient data bandwidth yet an insufficient shared PoE power budget, leaving cameras or phones unable to power up.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A subnet prefix determines IP addressing and routing reachability. It does not supply electrical power or increase the physical power capacity available to an Ethernet port.

C:

A MAC table controls where Layer 2 frames are forwarded, not how many watts the hardware can deliver. MAC table capacity cannot substitute for the required PoE power budget.

D:

Administrative distance chooses between competing route sources. It does not negotiate PoE classes or allocate electricity from the access switch chassis.

Question 7

A campus access switch uses a looped Layer 2 uplink to two downstream segments, and users intermittently lose reachability after a patch cable creates a redundant bridge path. Which device-plane mechanism should be verified first?

  1. The IPv4 routing table on the upstream router, because Layer 3 longest-prefix matching prevents Ethernet loops.
  2. The switch spanning-tree state and whether one redundant bridge path is safely discarding.
  3. A larger MAC address table, because it guarantees loop-free frame delivery.
  4. The switch VLAN ID numbering, because sequential VLAN numbers prevent topology loops.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The symptom appears after a redundant Ethernet bridging path was added, making a data-link loop a more direct explanation than missing IP routing. Rapid PVST+ computes a loop-free topology, allowing one eligible path to forward while another can discard. Verify bridge IDs, root ports and BPDUs rather than turning off STP to conceal flooding.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Routers choose IP next hops and separate broadcast domains, but they do not independently remove a loop formed among ports inside a bridged VLAN. STP is the relevant Layer 2 safeguard.

C:

More MAC storage may delay exhaustion but does not stop broadcasts or unknown unicasts circulating through a physical bridge loop. STP topology must be made safe.

D:

Numerical VLAN identifiers classify frames into broadcast domains. Their values do not determine whether a redundant path is safely blocked or causes a loop.

Question 8

A building access point uses PoE and powers on, but controller management reports the AP has joined no controller even though the AP can ping its default gateway. Which next infrastructure dependency is most relevant?

  1. Increase the AP transmit power so it automatically learns the controller on every routed network.
  2. Change the SSID spelling, because AP discovery uses the employee WLAN name as its controller address.
  3. Check the AP controller-discovery and CAPWAP control-plane reachability, not just basic IP gateway reachability.
  4. Create an OSPF router ID on the AP so it acts as the campus routing neighbor.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An AP with an IP address and local gateway reachability may still fail controller discovery, DTLS or CAPWAP control connectivity. Validate the configured discovery method, permitted control traffic and the correct controller address from the AP perspective. This distinguishes a managed lightweight AP registration issue from the unrelated client SSID or DHCP lease process.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transmit power changes radio coverage and does not discover or authenticate a controller across an IP network. AP-management reachability is a separate control-plane dependency.

B:

An SSID identifies client wireless service. Controller discovery uses supported management protocols and controller address discovery rather than the advertised client network name.

D:

Lightweight APs normally do not establish the enterprise routing protocol merely to join a controller. Check controller discovery and control packets rather than inventing routing adjacency.

Question 9

Two branch networks have switches, routers, and users but need a shared application to provide DNS and directory services to clients. Which component role fits the application-hosting requirement?

  1. A Layer 2 switch configured only with VLAN membership.
  2. A server that accepts service requests from the endpoints.
  3. An Ethernet patch panel with labeled copper ports.
  4. A PoE injector supplying electricity to an access point.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Servers host shared application processes and listen for client requests, for example DNS queries or directory authentication. Routers and switches can carry those packets, but delivering the requested application response requires a configured service endpoint. Server redundancy, access controls and DNS records are separate operational considerations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VLANs segregate Ethernet broadcast domains; switches do not automatically host the directory or DNS application merely by carrying their traffic. Clients still require actual server services.

C:

A patch panel organizes passive cabling and does not run DNS or directory processes. Good cabling is needed for connectivity, but it is not the requested shared application endpoint.

D:

A PoE injector supplies power to a compatible link, not a DNS database or directory authentication server. Electrical power alone cannot answer application queries.

Question 10

An aggregation switch has a routed SVI for each department. A security requirement permits Finance to reach the shared DNS service but must prevent Finance from initiating connections to Payroll. What additional control does basic inter-VLAN routing lack?

  1. Add more Layer 3 interfaces so the switch automatically isolates every routed subnet from every other subnet.
  2. Make the Finance and Payroll SVIs use identical IP addresses to stop communication.
  3. Disable IP routing entirely, since that preserves DNS while denying all other inter-VLAN traffic.
  4. Apply a properly scoped IP ACL or policy to the routed path, with explicit permits and denies for the required flows.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Routing between SVIs provides reachability, but it does not by itself enforce application-specific departmental segmentation. A correctly located extended IPv4 ACL can match source and destination prefixes and protocol or ports, while allowing the approved DNS traffic. Review ACL order and implicit deny and test both permitted and prohibited flows before deployment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Additional routed interfaces add potential paths but do not create the required selective filter. An explicit forwarding policy is needed when one application is permitted and another forbidden.

B:

Duplicate gateway addressing creates an invalid operational design and does not specify permitted DNS versus blocked Payroll traffic. Packet filtering must implement the security rule.

C:

Without an alternative design, disabling all routing would block the authorized DNS path as well as prohibited Payroll sessions. The requirement is granular policy, not total outage.