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CompTIA SY0-701 Bundle

Exam Code: SY0-701

Exam Name CompTIA Security+

Certification Provider: CompTIA

Corresponding Certification: CompTIA Security+

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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 2

Question 10

An endpoint-security agent detects an already-present malicious executable, isolates the affected process, and removes the malicious file to restore the host to an approved state. It is not merely displaying a warning or blocking a first connection. Which category and primary function BEST describe that action?

  1. Technical detective control
  2. Technical corrective control
  3. Operational corrective action
  4. Technical preventive control

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A technical corrective control changes an affected system after an undesirable condition has been identified. The endpoint agent isolates an already-infected process and deletes the malicious executable, directly reducing the detected compromise and returning the host toward its approved condition. This is more than alerting and differs from pre-execution prevention. Whether additional forensic investigation or full reimaging is needed depends on the extent of compromise and does not change this primary classification.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A technical detective control identifies events or artifacts that indicate suspicious behavior, such as signaling that an executable matches a malicious signature. Detection is an essential input to this case, so the category appears relevant. But the action being classified goes beyond observing the file: it isolates the process and removes the malware to restore the endpoint, which is corrective behavior.

C:

An operational corrective action is performed by personnel following an operating procedure, such as a technician manually revoking a mistakenly assigned administrator role. The objective can resemble automated remediation, so the word corrective alone is not enough to decide. In this scenario, a software agent performs the isolation and deletion without the described human procedure, making the control technical rather than operational.

D:

A technical preventive control blocks unauthorized activity before it succeeds, such as an application-control policy refusing to launch an untrusted executable. Endpoint software can provide both prevention and remediation capabilities, which may be confusing. Here the executable is already on the host and the requested action is cleanup following detection. Classifying that removal as the original prevention would ignore the time ordering stated in the stem.

Question 11

Senior leadership commissions a formal risk assessment to evaluate whether dividing the corporate network into smaller trust zones is justified by business impact, threat exposure, and treatment cost. No segmentation rule or monitoring sensor has been deployed yet. Which security-control category BEST fits the commissioned assessment?

  1. Managerial control
  2. Operational directive
  3. Technical detective control
  4. Technical preventive control

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A managerial control guides risk decisions, policy priorities, and the allocation of security resources by an organization's leadership. The formal assessment evaluates expected harm, likelihood, and the possible value of network segmentation before anyone changes the network. It informs a governance decision rather than directly filtering packets. Because the stem specifies that no technical change has been deployed, classifying the assessment as managerial correctly separates risk oversight from later implementation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An operational directive tells personnel how to perform recurring work, such as how service-desk employees should validate and process access requests. A risk assessment can eventually lead to new operating procedures, which creates a possible connection. In this question executives are deciding whether a network architecture change is warranted; there is no staff instruction governing daily execution, so the activity is managerial rather than operational.

C:

A technical detective control collects and analyzes events to reveal suspicious activity, such as a network intrusion-detection system raising alerts about unusual traffic patterns. Monitoring results may feed a risk assessment, which can make detective technology relevant to the broader program. Yet leadership has commissioned a study, and the stem excludes any newly deployed sensor or event-based detection function; detection is not the implemented control.

D:

A technical preventive control would enforce segmentation through mechanisms such as inter-zone firewall rules or access-control lists that stop disallowed network flows. The risk assessment could recommend exactly those defenses, so the term sounds familiar. However, a recommendation or cost-benefit evaluation is not the same as configuring the prevention mechanism, and the question explicitly says the technical deployment has not happened.

Question 12

A building access sensor has failed, and management needs equivalent temporary entry verification while the sensor is repaired. Vetted guards manually check credentials and entry logs under an approved temporary plan. What role does that plan play in the security-control design?

  1. A permanent technical detective control that automatically detects intruders
  2. An additional awareness campaign to deter casual trespassing
  3. A compensating operational control substituting for the unavailable sensor
  4. An automatic physical barrier that mechanically denies access without human intervention

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A compensating operational control substitutes a staffed verification process for an unavailable safeguard while the original sensor is repaired. Guards manually check entrants' authorization and maintain logs, providing both active entry verification and an audit trail. The plan should be authorized, documented, limited to the outage window, and evaluated for residual exposure because human inspection is not automatically identical in effectiveness to the original sensor system.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A permanent technical detective control would automatically sense entry attempts and produce events without relying on guards. The failed sensor is precisely the technology being temporarily replaced, and the substitute plan relies on human credential checking and written logs. Manual recordkeeping may provide later evidence, but it does not make the stopgap a new permanent automated detector or repair the failed sensor itself.

B:

Security awareness messages can discourage accidental or casual trespassing by reminding personnel about required badges and restricted areas. This plan goes further: vetted guards actively inspect credentials and record entries at the physical boundary. It supplies a functional substitute for a broken detection or access-verification mechanism, not merely information intended to change visitor behavior or create a deterrent impression.

D:

An automatic physical barrier can prevent passage through a door or turnstile until a hardware or electronic condition is met, without a guard independently deciding who enters. The scenario identifies no newly installed barrier and explicitly describes manually operated credential checks. That distinction matters: the temporary protection depends on staff procedures, training, and supervision, not autonomous mechanical enforcement.

Question 13

A former contractor downloads patient records from a portal using a still-active credential. The files were not changed and the portal remained available. Which security objective has been violated MOST directly?

  1. Confidentiality, because protected information reached an unauthorized reader
  2. Integrity, because the stored content is now demonstrably incorrect
  3. Availability, because patients can no longer reach their records
  4. Non-repudiation, because the portal has no digitally signed receipts

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Confidentiality concerns limiting sensitive information to authorized recipients and preventing unauthorized disclosure. The former contractor can still authenticate using a stale account, but continued account access does not make that person an authorized reader of patient records. Downloading those records exposes protected information, directly violating confidentiality. The unchanged files and functioning portal help separate this effect from integrity or availability loss, though multiple objectives can be harmed in other incidents.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Integrity means that data remains accurate and free from unauthorized alteration, with changes traceable to appropriate actors. A malicious user could compromise integrity by modifying diagnoses or payment details, but this evidence says the patient files were downloaded without being changed. An unauthorized reader is a confidentiality problem even when the read-only activity leaves every stored byte intact.

C:

Availability requires that legitimate users can obtain a service and its data when needed. A denial-of-service attack or outage could violate availability, but the portal remains reachable throughout this incident. The key fact is that an unauthorized former contractor obtains patient information, not that patients or clinical staff lose access to the functioning records system.

D:

Non-repudiation concerns evidence that binds a particular party to an action, often through appropriate signatures, identities, and auditable records. Signed transaction receipts might help prove who approved a clinical update, but the facts do not say receipt evidence is absent or disputed. The observed security violation is the unauthorized reading of confidential patient data, not a contested digital signature.

Question 14

The accounting team discovers that the destination account number in a signed-off supplier payment file was changed without authorization. The file remains readable, and no one outside finance received it. Which principle was compromised?

  1. Availability of the finance application
  2. Confidentiality of payment instructions
  3. Integrity of the payment record
  4. Authenticity of the accountant’s original login

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Integrity ensures that a stored record continues to reflect the approved information rather than an unauthorized modification. The destination account was altered after finance signed off, so the payment file is no longer trustworthy even though it remains readable and private. The correct control objective is maintaining or proving the approved content, for example through controlled modification privileges and integrity checks tied to an authenticated approval workflow.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Availability is the ability of legitimate finance personnel to use the system and retrieve the payment file when needed. The scenario explicitly says the file remains readable and does not describe any outage or denial of service. The problem is that a beneficiary account number has been changed without approval, so the primary impact concerns correctness of the data rather than its accessibility.

B:

Confidentiality is violated when payment data reaches an unauthorized reader or is disclosed outside an authorized audience. Investigators specifically found no distribution beyond the finance group, so there is no evidence of a disclosure. The unauthorized edit is dangerous because funds might be redirected, but that loss mechanism stems from altered instructions, not from someone learning confidential information.

D:

Authenticity is evidence that a claimed identity or message origin is genuine, including whether an accountant logged in with valid credentials. An authentic prior login does not guarantee that the approved file was never changed afterward, and no login-spoofing evidence is stated. The failure described is unauthorized alteration of an existing record; it directly tests data integrity rather than the user's initial identity claim.

Question 15

During a traffic flood, legitimate customers cannot reach an online service. Investigators find no evidence that confidential data was disclosed or stored records were modified. Which element of the CIA triad has been compromised?

  1. Confidentiality
  2. Integrity
  3. Availability
  4. Non-repudiation

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Availability means legitimate customers can access a service and receive expected responses when they need them. Flooding the endpoint consumes network or application resources so authorized requests fail despite the underlying data remaining intact and secret. This is a direct availability compromise characteristic of denial-of-service conditions. Mitigations may include rate limiting, upstream filtering, or capacity controls, but those techniques are not the CIA element being asked for.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Confidentiality governs whether protected data can be viewed or disclosed to unauthorized parties. A traffic flood could sometimes be paired with data theft, but this investigation explicitly found no evidence of disclosure. Here packets overwhelm service capacity and prevent legitimate requests from succeeding, which affects a different dimension of the confidentiality-integrity-availability model.

B:

Integrity requires that data and processes remain accurate and are not modified without authorization. An attacker might tamper with records or inject fraudulent transactions while disrupting a service, but investigators found stored data unchanged. The loss described is an inability to reach the online service during a flood, not corruption of the information that it stores.

D:

Non-repudiation provides evidence connecting a party to an action so that the action cannot credibly be denied later, commonly through signed transactions and reliable identity records. The question concerns failed access to a service, not a dispute about a signed operation or the accountability of a transaction. It would therefore misclassify the customer outage to choose non-repudiation.

Question 16

A staff member successfully signs in using a valid phishing-resistant authenticator. Access to the payroll folder is then denied because their current role has no payroll permission. Which control decision explains the denial?

  1. Authentication failed because the login credential was not trusted
  2. Authorization denied the requested resource after successful authentication
  3. Identity proofing rejected the applicant before credential enrollment
  4. A password-expiry rule forced reauthentication

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Authorization determines what an authenticated subject may access or perform on a particular resource. Even though the staff member successfully proves identity, the role-to-resource policy does not grant payroll-folder permission, so the system denies the requested action. This illustrates the separation between proving who the user is and deciding what that user is allowed to do. Additional authenticators alone would not create the missing permission.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication verifies that a claimant can demonstrate control of an acceptable credential and establishes an identity assertion for a session. The staff member has already passed that check using a phishing-resistant authenticator, so authentication has not failed. The subsequent refusal occurs when the system evaluates that identified user's permissions for one protected payroll folder.

C:

Identity proofing is the enrollment process that validates an applicant's claimed real-world identity before appropriate credentials are issued. It may be important when onboarding a new employee, but the scenario begins with a staff member who already has a trusted authenticator and a functioning account. The denial is made after sign-in against resource privileges, not during the person's initial identity verification.

D:

Password-expiry policies may require changing a credential or completing a new sign-in when an account's memorized secret is no longer acceptable. Nothing says the person's password expired; instead, a phishing-resistant credential was accepted and the user proceeded to a resource request. The explicit reason for denial is absence of payroll authorization, which password rotation would not automatically resolve.

Question 17

Three administrators use a shared root account for emergency fixes. Commands appear in system logs as root, but investigators cannot establish which administrator deleted records. Which improvement MOST directly restores personal accountability?

  1. Require MFA on the existing shared root password without recording individual users
  2. Give the shared root account additional permissions during incidents
  3. Issue unique administrator identities and maintain attributable privileged-session audit records
  4. Disable all command logging to reduce operational overhead

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Unique administrator identities bind privileged activity to the individual who authenticated. Recording privileged-session starts, identity mappings, commands, and relevant timestamps allows investigators to connect the deletion to a person even if a controlled elevation temporarily uses a service or root context. Logs must be protected against alteration and session attribution must survive privilege escalation; merely naming users without collecting trustworthy evidence would not solve the problem.

Incorrect Answers

A:

MFA can strengthen the authentication of a shared account by making possession of the password insufficient for login. However, if all administrators still operate under the same root identity and no individual authentication-to-session binding is kept, the command log continues to attribute actions only to root. That does not establish which human performed a deletion, so MFA alone is inadequate for the specific accountability gap.

B:

Granting additional permissions to a shared root identity expands what anyone using that account can change and may increase the impact of misuse. It does not create per-person attribution because all commands still run under the same collective identity. Privileged access should instead be limited, tied to an individual operator, and supported by reliable activity records, especially for emergency changes.

D:

Disabling command logs eliminates important records of what happened during privileged emergency fixes. Investigators would have even less evidence of the deleted records and no basis to distinguish individual actions. Reducing logging volume may sometimes be necessary for performance or privacy, but that should be done with carefully scoped retention and auditing, not by removing the records needed for accountability.

Question 18

A business partner denies authorizing a digital purchase order. The recipient must demonstrate both that the message was unchanged and that it was signed with the partner’s authorized private key. Which evidence is MOST suitable?

  1. A checksum calculated by the recipient after receipt
  2. A shared-secret MAC generated by either party
  3. A trusted certificate plus a verifiable digital signature over the order
  4. Encryption of the purchase order with the recipient’s public key

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A verifiable digital signature binds the order's bytes to a private signing key, and a trusted certificate establishes an authenticated relationship to the corresponding public key. Validating the signature and certificate chain helps detect alteration and provides evidence consistent with the partner authorizing the purchase order. The recipient should preserve the signed original, certificate status and reliable audit or timestamp records; possession or compromise of the private key remains an important limitation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A plain checksum can detect that a file differs from a known reference value, but anyone who can modify the order can calculate and substitute a new checksum. It therefore does not bind the contents to the business partner's private key or establish who authorized them. Checksums are appropriate for accidental corruption detection, not for the specified non-repudiation and origin-verification evidence.

B:

A message authentication code proves that someone possessing a shared secret generated or validated a message and helps detect tampering in transit. Because both trading partners know the same MAC key, either could produce a valid tag, making it weak evidence in a dispute about which party signed. Shared-key authentication can be suitable for service-to-service integrity, but not exclusive attribution to the partner's signing key.

D:

Encrypting the order to the recipient's public key helps keep its contents confidential during delivery because the recipient can decrypt it. That operation does not prove the sender owns the trading partner's signing private key or that the partner authorized the transaction. Anyone with the recipient's public key could encrypt a forged order, so encryption is not a substitute for a sender signature.

Question 19

An internal auditor lists the safeguards currently deployed on 80 servers and compares them against a previously approved target control baseline. The deliverable will identify missing controls and prioritize the differences. Which assessment is being performed?

  1. A penetration test that attempts to exploit the live server environment
  2. A business impact analysis ranking the cost of service interruptions
  3. An incident root-cause analysis of a previously observed compromise
  4. A gap analysis against the approved target state

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Gap analysis compares the actual control state of the eighty servers with the organization's approved desired baseline. The auditor identifies which requirements are already implemented, which are absent or weaker than required, and what should be remediated first. This method supports security improvement planning without assuming that a successful exploitation or outage has occurred. The quality of its results depends on an accurate inventory and a sufficiently specific target standard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Penetration testing attempts to exercise security weaknesses and demonstrate exploitability within an authorized scope, potentially using controlled attacks against the servers. The auditor is instead comparing a list of currently deployed safeguards with an approved target baseline, without describing any exploit attempts. A penetration test can produce findings that feed a gap assessment, but it is not the comparison activity itself.

B:

A business impact analysis identifies critical business functions and estimates disruption consequences, dependencies, recovery priorities and tolerable downtime. That is useful when deciding which servers deserve stronger protections, but the stated deliverable is the difference between installed safeguards and a preapproved target configuration. Its unit of analysis is control implementation versus a benchmark, not revenue loss or recovery impact.

C:

Root-cause analysis investigates how and why an observed security or operational incident occurred, tracing contributing events and failed controls. The question does not identify a compromise or ask for an incident timeline. The auditor is performing a forward-looking baseline comparison across eighty servers, so the results are missing or misaligned controls rather than causes of a particular past event.

Question 20

In a zero-trust deployment, the gateway is already enforcing each decision and another component establishes the session. A separate component compares identity claims, device posture and resource policy and returns an allow-or-deny decision. Which architectural role is that decision-maker?

  1. Policy engine
  2. Policy enforcement point
  3. Policy administrator
  4. Network access switch acting as a packet-forwarding device

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The policy engine is the zero-trust decision-making component that evaluates available identity, device and resource context against policy and produces an allow-or-deny result. In this deployment, another component establishes the session and the gateway enforces the outcome, so the role is unambiguously decision-making rather than connection management. The policy engine's decision is only as reliable as its policy inputs, risk signals, and timely reevaluation of changed conditions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A policy enforcement point is the gateway or agent that allows, blocks, monitors, or terminates an actual subject-to-resource connection. It applies the result of a policy decision but need not calculate that decision itself. Because the scenario expressly states the gateway is already enforcing and asks for the separate component that evaluates context, selecting the enforcement point would confuse execution with decision-making.

C:

The policy administrator arranges or tears down communication paths in response to a policy engine's decision, often instructing enforcement points to establish the authorized session. It can be mistaken for the engine because it participates in the control plane, but the question identifies a separate session-establishment component. The contextual allow-or-deny evaluation belongs to the engine, not to the administrator coordinating connectivity.

D:

A network access switch forwards Ethernet frames and may implement port-level admission rules, VLANs, or access-control lists based on commands from other components. That network function does not by itself describe the logical policy engine assessing identity claims, posture and per-resource rules. Even if a switch acts as an enforcement location, the requested role is the distinct component that makes the access decision.