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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 21

Question 200

A Rapid PVST+ root bridge is connected to three downstream LAN segments, with no link failures or guard restrictions. Which ordinary port role should its active designated-facing ports hold for that VLAN?

  1. Designated forwarding ports on their respective segments, because the root bridge advertises the best root path.
  2. Root ports on every active segment because the root must choose one path toward a better upstream bridge.
  3. All ports remain permanently discarding to prevent any frames leaving the root.
  4. Every port must become an alternate port waiting for an OSPF adjacency.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The root bridge is the reference for the lowest-cost path calculation and has no root port leading toward another root. Its active ports generally become designated for their connected segments where they advertise superior root information. STP still evaluates each VLAN and segment, but the root does not need an alternate uplink to reach itself.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A root port is the path a nonroot bridge uses to reach the selected root. The actual root bridge is already the path origin and has no upstream root port.

C:

That would eliminate the root’s ability to forward ordinary LAN traffic. STP prevents loops through selective port roles, not by suppressing every active root-bridge port.

D:

Alternate roles are redundant paths at STP, not a prerequisite for Layer 3 OSPF neighbor relationships. A root bridge normally provides designated forwarding paths to downstream segments.

Question 201

A switchport is a validated end-host access interface with no downstream bridge. The attached desktop takes too long to get a DHCP lease after a link-up because the old STP transition delays its first frames. Which feature targets that behavior?

  1. Make the switch the OSPF area border router for the desktop subnet.
  2. Disable STP globally on all switches in the VLAN to eliminate port transition times.
  3. Configure Root Guard on the host port and rely on it to skip all intermediate STP states.
  4. Enable PortFast on the verified edge port, while retaining the appropriate BPDU protection policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

PortFast allows an eligible edge port to reach forwarding without waiting for ordinary spanning-tree transition delays. That can allow DHCP discovery and other initial host traffic promptly after link-up. It is appropriate only after confirming the port does not connect to another bridge; BPDU Guard can help enforce that assumption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An OSPF area role controls route advertisement between routing areas, not access switchport STP transition delay. The symptom occurs before the host finishes initial Layer 2 forwarding.

B:

STP prevents Layer 2 loops when redundant paths exist. Disabling the protocol campus-wide is unsafe when only one validated end-host edge port needs faster transition.

C:

Root Guard prevents unwanted downstream root takeover but does not substitute for PortFast edge transition. The control targets a different condition: superior BPDU reception.

Question 202

An access switch connects to a user PC on a PortFast-enabled edge interface. A small unmanaged switch with a loop is plugged into that port and begins transmitting BPDUs. Which safety control stops this edge-port violation promptly?

  1. Enable BPDU Guard on the approved PortFast edge port so receiving a BPDU causes a protective shutdown.
  2. Use Root Guard as the sole guarantee that every received BPDU disables all edge ports.
  3. Disable PortFast and also disable spanning tree globally, so the new switch can transmit freely.
  4. Increase the host VLAN’s IP subnet mask so BPDUs are no longer accepted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

PortFast assumes the connected device is an endpoint rather than a bridge participating in spanning tree. BPDU Guard detects a BPDU on such a protected port and can place the port into an error-disabled state, preventing an unexpected downstream bridge from undermining loop protection. Recovery must follow the site’s approved remediation process.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Root Guard specifically blocks superior root claims using root-inconsistent behavior; its triggering behavior is not identical to BPDU Guard’s edge-port protection.

C:

Turning off STP removes the loop-prevention mechanism when a bridge loop is suspected. It would increase exposure rather than enforce edge-port policy.

D:

BPDUs are Layer 2 spanning-tree frames and are unaffected by the host’s IPv4 mask. Port-level STP protection is required.

Question 203

A redundant uplink is expected to receive BPDUs from a neighboring switch but stops hearing them after a unidirectional fiber fault. How does STP Loop Guard help when the non-designated port might otherwise transition to forwarding?

  1. It disables a PortFast edge interface immediately whenever any BPDU is received.
  2. Loop Guard keeps the protected port from moving to an unsafe forwarding role when expected BPDUs disappear, entering a loop-inconsistent condition.
  3. It increases the STP root bridge priority automatically until the link becomes safe.
  4. It makes a failed fiber link a full-duplex routed IP port, bypassing Layer 2 loop prevention.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An alternate or root port that stops receiving superior BPDUs could otherwise be mistakenly promoted and form a bridging loop. Loop Guard adds protection for this loss-of-BPDU scenario on appropriate non-designated ports. It is distinct from BPDU Guard, which reacts to unexpected BPDUs appearing on edge ports.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That describes the protection purpose of BPDU Guard, not Loop Guard. Loop Guard responds to missing expected BPDU information on designated roles where a loop could arise.

C:

Loop Guard does not elect a new root by rewriting bridge priority. It guards state transition when BPDUs unexpectedly cease arriving.

D:

A physical fault and a bridging role cannot be converted to IP routing by Loop Guard. The feature prevents unsafe STP state, not transceiver repair.

Question 204

A network team needs the access switch to select the lower-cost path toward its Rapid PVST+ root bridge and has two healthy uplinks with different configured STP path costs. What should the team inspect to verify the active root port?

  1. Use `show spanning-tree vlan <vlan-id>` to compare root path costs and the selected root port for that VLAN.
  2. Use `show ip route` to select the interface with the lowest OSPF metric.
  3. Use `show vlan brief` as proof that its active root port has the lowest path cost.
  4. Choose the port with the lowest switchport number because STP never considers configured costs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The spanning-tree operational output identifies the current root, path cost and port roles for a VLAN. STP normally selects the best path toward the root from advertised plus local path costs, with deterministic tie-breakers when costs match. Verifying actual state matters because configuration alone does not prove the topology converged as expected.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The IP routing table reports Layer 3 routes, not the root-port role of a particular Layer 2 spanning-tree VLAN. OSPF metrics cannot substitute for STP path cost output.

C:

This command shows VLAN inventory and access port membership, not the complete STP BPDU-derived path comparisons. A trunk can carry the VLAN while its STP role remains alternate.

D:

STP path cost is a primary comparison criterion for root port selection. Port IDs are later tie-breakers when earlier root and cost information ties.

Question 205

A switch uses Rapid PVST+ for VLAN 99. A new uplink appears and the operator wants to know whether its port is discarding, learning or forwarding while convergence completes. Which command and concept should be used?

  1. Assume a designated role means the interface always forwarded user frames since link-up.
  2. Inspect `show spanning-tree vlan 99` for its current STP role and operational state, which can differ during convergence.
  3. Treat a discarding state as evidence that the physical interface is administratively shut down.
  4. Use `show arp` to infer the switchport’s exact STP state from IP-to-MAC mappings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

RSTP separates a port’s topology role from its state. A port can have a designated or alternate role while its data-forwarding state is still discarding, learning or forwarding. Checking the operational per-VLAN output makes it possible to distinguish a normal transient state from an actual blocked redundant path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A designated role identifies its topology position, but RSTP state can evolve during synchronization and topology change. The role label alone does not prove the port is currently forwarding.

C:

RSTP can block data frames on a healthy link to maintain a loop-free topology. A physical or administrative shutdown requires separate interface-status evidence.

D:

ARP records address resolution for IPv4 neighbors. It does not report spanning-tree state transitions for an individual VLAN port.

Question 206

A campus engineer plans to set a raw bridge priority of 5000 for VLAN 30 on a Cisco switch running extended-system-ID STP, but IOS rejects the command. Which rule explains the invalid value?

  1. The STP priority must exactly equal the VLAN identifier, here the decimal value 30.
  2. Priorities are selected from IPv4 subnet masks and must be powers of two up to 255.
  3. Root bridge priority is an OSPF interface cost and accepts only numbers divisible by 10.
  4. Configurable STP base bridge priority values must use supported increments of 4096, with the VLAN system ID extension included in the effective bridge ID.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

With the extended system ID format, an STP bridge priority field allocates low bits to the VLAN identifier. The configurable base priority therefore uses the supported 4096-step values, such as 4096, 8192 and 12288. A value of 5000 is not a supported increment and should not be treated as a valid bridge priority setting.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The VLAN ID is an extension component of the effective bridge identifier, not the entire configurable base priority. Setting priority to 30 is not the required remedy.

B:

IP subnet masks and their host counts are unrelated to the STP bridge identifier format. The valid bridge priority increments are determined by the spanning-tree encoding.

C:

OSPF route metrics and Layer 2 bridge priorities are separate settings. Neither the 5000 value nor the 4096 increment requirement comes from OSPF.

Question 207

A campus lightweight AP must serve normal employee clients using centrally managed WLAN policies and data forwarding over a healthy WLC connection. Which AP operating mode is appropriate?

  1. Sniffer mode forwarding 802.11 packet captures to an analyzer.
  2. Rogue detector mode dedicated to detecting wired rogue APs.
  3. Monitor mode that scans channels but does not serve normal client associations.
  4. Local client-serving AP mode under the wireless LAN controller.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Local AP mode supports normal client association while the wireless controller centrally manages the WLAN and associated policy. The AP handles radio transmission, and the controller coordinates control functions and, for central switching designs, data forwarding. Monitor or sniffer modes are designed for observation rather than ordinary client access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sniffer mode captures on-channel traffic for troubleshooting and typically sacrifices normal client-serving behavior. The requirement is production client service.

B:

A rogue detector has a specialized security-monitoring role rather than providing ordinary WLAN client association. The site requires a client-serving local AP.

C:

A monitor-mode AP is used to observe RF conditions and suspicious wireless activity. It is not the right setting for an AP whose primary function is serving employee clients.

Question 208

A centrally managed AP has joined its controller but newly connected clients receive no address after successful WPA authentication. DHCP relay and wireless policy mapping depend on the client VLAN. What should the operator verify next?

  1. Rename the SSID because DHCP always derives the client IP prefix from the text of the WLAN name.
  2. Check the WLAN-to-policy-profile VLAN mapping and whether DHCP requests reach the intended gateway or relay.
  3. Force every AP into sniffer mode so it can provide DHCP relay while collecting packet captures.
  4. Disable all encryption because a correct WPA association cannot coexist with DHCP problems.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Successful radio association and authentication do not prove that client data is mapped into the correct wired VLAN. On a controller deployment, the policy profile and switching mode determine how frames reach the DHCP service. Verify the operational VLAN, local-versus-central switching path and DHCP relay behavior before changing unrelated RF power.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An SSID identifies a wireless service but does not encode the subnet allocation. The actual VLAN and relay design determines which scope responds.

C:

Sniffer mode is for 802.11 capture rather than ordinary client service. It does not replace the configured client VLAN and DHCP forwarding path.

D:

Authentication can succeed while downstream VLAN mapping or DHCP forwarding fails. Removing encryption weakens security and does not correct the client data path.

Question 209

A field technician changes the AP operating mode from local to monitor on a production radio; employees immediately lose association service from that AP. Which conclusion is technically accurate?

  1. Monitor mode changes the AP to channel observation rather than normal client-serving service.
  2. The AP moved to a new IPv4 routing area that requires OSPF neighbor reset.
  3. The SSID is automatically encrypted with a new passphrase when monitor mode starts.
  4. The switch MAC address table became permanently full.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

AP mode determines whether radio resources are assigned to serving clients or observing wireless activity. A dedicated monitor role may no longer advertise and serve the prior WLAN, explaining the outage. Revert the mode under the supported controller workflow if normal client association is required.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An AP radio mode change is not an OSPF route-area transition. The loss of client service directly follows the radio’s new non-client-serving role.

C:

A monitor role does not automatically negotiate a different WLAN PSK for clients. The core change is that the AP is not operating as a normal serving radio.

D:

Normal MAC-table capacity is independent of the selected AP mode. The mode change explains why associations stopped without requiring a permanent table exhaustion event.

Question 210

A lightweight access point temporarily loses its controller WAN link in a remote branch. The design must specify what local client forwarding, authentication and cached policy behavior is supported. Which design decision is essential?

  1. Document and validate the selected FlexConnect survivability and local switching mode for that AP/WLAN.
  2. Assume all centrally switched clients remain reachable across a failed WAN.
  3. Enable an unrelated IPv4 DNS record and declare controller failover complete.
  4. Convert the AP to passive Ethernet hub mode.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

FlexConnect can support remote-site designs with local forwarding and certain survivability behaviors, subject to platform, authentication and WLAN configuration. The controller outage does not guarantee identical behavior for every security mode. Test the branch mode and failure case before promising clients continued service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

If their data path requires the controller across the failed link, connectivity may not survive. A proper design distinguishes central from local switching.

C:

DNS can locate services but does not define wireless data forwarding or local authentication behavior during controller loss. That is a WLAN mode design choice.

D:

A passive hub is not a supported wireless survivability mode. This would not specify valid controller-disconnected WLAN operation.