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CompTIA SY0-701 Bundle

Exam Code: SY0-701

Exam Name CompTIA Security+

Certification Provider: CompTIA

Corresponding Certification: CompTIA Security+

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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 35

Question 340

A payment server's security configurations change outside scheduled maintenance with no administrative change ticket. Which modification to enterprise security capabilities is MOST specifically appropriate?

  1. File integrity change detection and alert
  2. Behavior-based detection of living-off-the-land abuse
  3. Centralized Group Policy screen-lock settings
  4. SELinux mandatory access controls

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Enable file integrity monitoring on the payment server's critical security configuration files and alert when their hashes, metadata, or controlled change attributes diverge from approved baselines outside authorized maintenance. The problem is unexplained modification of protected settings without a change ticket, so recording and escalating that delta is the most direct capability. Correlate alerts with administrative logs and planned deployment windows to investigate who changed the files. FIM detects changes; it does not by itself identify the attacker or prevent every alteration.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Behavior-based EDR analytics can detect suspicious process chains and misuse of trusted administrative utilities even when antivirus signatures do not fire. The scenario gives no evidence of living-off-the-land execution; it identifies unexplained configuration-file changes. FIM targets that specific observable difference more directly, while behavioral telemetry may help investigate its origin.

C:

Centralized Group Policy can enforce Windows workstation settings such as screen-lock timeouts at fleet scale. It is not a general-purpose file-change detector for every payment server security configuration. Applying a screen-lock policy would not record unauthorized edits to the server's protected files or correlate them with the missing change ticket.

D:

SELinux mandatory access control can confine Linux service domains even when ordinary discretionary file permissions would permit access. It is useful for restricting what a compromised daemon may read or modify. The current requirement is to detect unexpected changes already occurring in payment server configuration files, so file integrity monitoring is the more specific answer.

Question 341

A payment web application has HTTPS configured, but users can still type an http:// bookmark. After one trusted HTTPS visit, administrators want compatible browsers to refuse future plaintext connections to the same host. Which web security setting BEST achieves that persistent client-side rule?

  1. Add a 301 redirect from HTTP to HTTPS without any browser-enforced transport policy
  2. Set the Secure attribute on session cookies and permit all non-cookie HTTP requests
  3. Publish a Content-Security-Policy that only restricts allowed JavaScript sources
  4. Send a Strict-Transport-Security response header over HTTPS with an appropriate max-age

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Serve the Strict-Transport-Security response header over valid HTTPS with an appropriate max-age so supporting browsers remember the host must be reached securely. On later visits, the user agent upgrades HTTP URLs to HTTPS before making a plaintext connection and treats TLS errors as fatal. That directly meets the requirement for a persistent client-side host transport policy after the initial trusted HTTPS response. Carefully test subdomains and certificate renewal before enabling includeSubDomains or preload; HSTS cannot protect the first visit unless preloaded.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An HTTP-to-HTTPS 301 redirect asks a browser to make a second request on a secure URL after first contacting the server over HTTP. That initial plaintext connection may still be intercepted or altered by an active network attacker. The question asks for a persistent browser-side rule after a trusted HTTPS visit, which a redirect alone cannot establish.

B:

Setting Secure on authentication cookies prevents compliant browsers from sending those cookies over plaintext HTTP. It is an essential session confidentiality control, but the browser could still request non-cookie content through an old HTTP bookmark and expose its initial navigation. The specified requirement is to upgrade the entire host connection policy after an HTTPS visit, not only protect cookie transport.

C:

Content-Security-Policy can restrict which script sources a page may load, helping mitigate some injection and XSS impacts. A policy that only names allowed JavaScript origins does not tell the browser to reject plaintext HTTP navigation to the host. The scenario is about transport downgrade behavior, not untrusted script execution.

Question 342

Threat actors invoke trusted system binaries to run malicious code while signature antivirus permits their hashes. Which modification to enterprise security capabilities is MOST specifically appropriate?

  1. Endpoint anti-malware scanning
  2. Behavior-based detection of living-off-the-land abuse
  3. File integrity change detection and alert
  4. NAC restricted remediation VLAN

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use EDR behavioral analytics that correlate process ancestry, suspicious command lines, unexpected network destinations, and unusual execution sequences involving trusted utilities. Living-off-the-land techniques exploit legitimate signed binaries, so detection must consider what a tool is doing and in which context, not only whether its file hash is allowlisted. The scenario already documents signed system programs executing malicious behavior while signature antivirus permits them. Tune detection for normal administrator tasks and retain supporting evidence for investigation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Signature-focused antivirus scanning compares files with known malicious signatures and may apply basic heuristics. Threat actors can abuse legitimate signed administrative tools whose binary hashes are not malicious. The stem explicitly says ordinary antivirus permits these tools, so relying on more of the same signature checks could miss the behavior that matters.

C:

File integrity monitoring detects unauthorized changes to important files or security configurations by comparing their approved properties or hashes. Some signed-tool abuse may modify files, but attackers can also execute malicious commands without altering the monitored baseline. The specified failure is misuse of trusted binaries, better observed through process behavior and execution context than file-change alerts alone.

D:

NAC quarantine limits network access for endpoints whose posture fails a policy, often directing them to a remediation segment. It is useful after a compromised or noncompliant device is identified. The stated problem is detection of suspicious use of signed administrative tools that signature checks miss, so NAC alone does not supply the requested behavioral visibility.

Question 343

Public kiosk browsers are reaching sites the central web proxy has already classified as credential-harvesting destinations. Administrators want the proxy to deny access based on the assigned website reputation and category without breaking legitimate browsing. Which web security policy should they enforce?

  1. URL reputation/category blocking
  2. Targeted time-bound web-filter exception
  3. Resolver policy blocks malicious name
  4. Behavior-based detection of living-off-the-land abuse

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Enable URL reputation and category blocking at the centrally available secure web gateway or proxy for domains known to harvest credentials. This uses policy classifications to stop kiosk browsers from reaching phishing sites before users submit credentials. The scenario already identifies a central proxy path and malicious website category, so web-filter enforcement is a direct preventive change. Maintain update and appeal processes for incorrectly classified legitimate sites, and monitor attempted access for repeated compromise indicators.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A narrowly scoped, time-limited web-filter exception allows an otherwise blocked legitimate hostname needed for a specific business operation. Here kiosks are visiting domains already classified as credential-harvesting destinations. Creating exceptions would weaken protection instead of preventing access, so the policy should enforce the malicious category block rather than bypass it.

C:

Protective DNS can refuse name resolution for confirmed malicious hosts, which may provide a complementary control to proxy filtering. However, the case emphasizes web browsing through an available central proxy and category classifications; a URL reputation policy can evaluate the web destination at that existing enforcement point. DNS-only controls may also lack the same path- and category-level context.

D:

Behavioral EDR analytics can identify malicious activity performed with signed administrative programs after execution. They may help find a kiosk that has been compromised but do not directly prevent web browsing to known phishing domains through a proxy. The requirement is outbound destination policy for public kiosk browsers, not local process lineage detection.

Question 344

A legitimate device firmware updater requires one currently blocked hostname and security must avoid broad domain exceptions. Which modification to enterprise security capabilities is MOST specifically appropriate?

  1. NAC restricted remediation VLAN
  2. URL reputation/category blocking
  3. Resolver policy blocks malicious name
  4. Targeted time-bound web-filter exception

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Create an exception for the single verified firmware-update hostname, restricted to the necessary device group, action, and approved maintenance interval. Document the business owner, evidence of vendor legitimacy, expiration, and monitoring so the exception does not become a broad permanent bypass. The vendor needs one blocked endpoint and the security requirement forbids domain-wide exceptions; a targeted time-bound web-filter rule meets both needs. Confirm TLS and firmware signature validation independently, since allowing a hostname does not prove every downloaded image trustworthy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A restricted NAC remediation segment can isolate a noncompliant device from production until it meets policy. It does not grant a specific firmware updater access to one justified hostname while preserving the rest of the proxy restrictions. The administrator wants a precise web-filter policy exception, not wholesale network quarantine.

B:

URL reputation blocking keeps users away from phishing and malware sites classified by a web security gateway. The required vendor update hostname is currently blocked despite a legitimate, verified purpose. Leaving the block in place prevents necessary firmware maintenance; the requested change is a narrowly documented exception, not expanding category blocking.

C:

Protective DNS filtering prevents resolution of confirmed malicious hostnames. It is useful for disrupting command-and-control but cannot make one legitimate blocked web hostname available if a separate proxy web filter still denies it. The scenario explicitly targets the proxy exception workflow rather than malicious DNS resolution.

Question 345

Legal must send protected case files through one encrypted approved portal while personal email attachments should be blocked. Which technical policy or control should the administrator implement?

  1. Contextual DLP channel allow and block
  2. URL reputation/category blocking
  3. Behavior-based detection of living-off-the-land abuse
  4. Targeted time-bound web-filter exception

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Configure contextual DLP rules that recognize the protected legal case files, permit transfers through the explicitly approved encrypted portal, and block or alert on attempts to attach the same information to personal email. This protects information according to its sensitivity, user, destination, and approved business workflow. The scenario needs both a narrow permitted channel and a disallowed channel, not a total ban on data movement. Test classifiers and exception workflow carefully so legitimate legal transfers continue without broad exposure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

URL reputation and category blocking can prevent browsers from visiting malicious sites and disallowed web categories. A legal team's personal email attachment may use a reputable webmail provider, and the approved legal portal may be in an ordinary category. Web reputation alone cannot reliably classify which sensitive files are being sent through each channel.

C:

Behavior-based EDR can detect abnormal endpoint process activity and living-off-the-land attacks. The legal team may be using completely legitimate email applications while violating a sensitive-file transfer policy. The problem is confidential content moving through the wrong destination, so DLP's content- and context-aware decision is more precise than process-malware analytics.

D:

A temporary proxy exception could allow an approved web portal otherwise blocked by filtering policy. It does not decide whether protected legal files should be blocked when attached to personal emails. The scenario requires simultaneous content classification and channel-specific allow/block decisions rather than merely making one hostname reachable.

Question 346

A dismissed employee keeps active cloud sessions because HR termination information is transferred weekly. Which identity-and-access-management mechanism BEST meets this exact requirement?

  1. Event-triggered deprovisioning and session revocation
  2. Identity federation
  3. OAuth delegated authorization
  4. Time-limited privileged elevation

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Connect HR termination events to the identity lifecycle workflow so account disabling and session/token revocation occur promptly when employment ends, rather than after a weekly batch transfer. The dismissed employee's current cloud sessions remain valid because offboarding data arrives too late; event-driven deprovisioning directly closes that window. Verify identity mappings across services, enforce revocation of refresh tokens and downstream sessions where supported, and test exceptions for legal holds or service accounts. Monitor failures so a connector outage does not leave access active.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Identity federation lets services trust assertions from a common identity provider and can simplify central authentication. Federation does not guarantee immediate disabling when HR fails to notify the identity platform about a terminated employee. The existing weekly delay is a lifecycle-trigger problem, so federated login alone cannot remove still-valid sessions promptly.

C:

OAuth delegated authorization allows an application to access a protected API using scoped tokens instead of collecting the user's password. It does not by itself trigger offboarding when HR records change. The scenario needs coordinated account and session revocation for a dismissed employee, not authorization delegation to another client application.

D:

Time-limited privileged elevation reduces persistent administrator rights by granting them only for a justified interval. It may reduce exposure from overprivileged accounts, but the dismissed employee is retaining ordinary active cloud sessions because the termination signal arrives weekly. Just-in-time elevation does not replace event-driven identity deprovisioning and session invalidation.

Question 347

Developers permanently hold database administrator access although elevated access is required only during approved releases. Which IAM decision most directly handles the described identity condition?

  1. SAML federation
  2. Time-limited privileged elevation
  3. Event-triggered deprovisioning and session revocation
  4. PAM broker with monitored privileged sessions

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Grant database administrator privileges just in time for an approved release, require appropriate approval and strong authentication, and automatically revoke elevation when the bounded task or window ends. This removes standing administrative access that developers do not need in routine work. Record who requested elevation and what database operations occurred, and provide an emergency procedure that does not become permanently enabled. The key fact is occasional release-only administrator work, making time-limited privileged elevation more direct than continued permanent roles.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SAML federation supports browser-based single sign-on through signed identity assertions between an identity provider and a service provider. It can simplify logging into a database administration portal but does not automatically limit a developer's privileged database role to an approved release window. Authentication federation is distinct from time-bounded privileged authorization.

C:

Event-triggered deprovisioning disables identities promptly when a worker departs or loses eligibility. It is critical during offboarding but does not solve an active developer's unnecessarily permanent administrator role while still employed. The developer needs privilege for individual approved releases, so adjust elevation duration rather than remove the entire employee account.

D:

A privileged access management broker can control credentials and record high-risk sessions, which improves auditability and may implement time limits. However, a monitored session does not necessarily remove the permanent database administrator role after release work. The scenario specifically asks to eliminate standing elevation, so just-in-time assignment and automatic expiry are the decisive mechanisms; PAM can enforce them as a supporting platform.

Question 348

Employees must sign in to several external business applications using the company identity provider. Some vendors rely on SAML, while others accept OpenID Connect. Which OVERARCHING identity architecture supports this arrangement without new passwords at each vendor?

  1. Identity federation across the trusted providers
  2. OAuth delegated API authorization without authenticating users
  3. Require an OpenID Connect ID token from the SAML-only applications
  4. Require SAML assertions from every vendor, including OIDC-only applications

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Use identity federation so external applications trust authentication assertions or tokens from the corporate identity provider instead of requiring unrelated local passwords. Individual vendors may use SAML or OpenID Connect, but the overarching architecture is the federation trust relationship and appropriate protocol integration. The question explicitly spans both technologies, so neither single protocol should be forced on applications that do not support it. Establish attribute mapping, certificate/token validation, account lifecycle processes, and trust boundaries with each vendor.

Incorrect Answers

B:

OAuth 2.0 delegation allows a client to call protected APIs on a resource owner's behalf using access tokens and scopes. OAuth by itself is an authorization framework, not a substitute for user authentication assertions at each third-party login. The prompt requires employees to sign into several SaaS applications using the company identity provider, which is a federation architecture problem.

C:

OpenID Connect supplies an identity layer and ID token over OAuth 2.0, which can authenticate users to compatible applications. However, the scenario explicitly includes SAML-only vendors that do not accept OIDC tokens. Insisting those vendors produce an OIDC ID token would fail interoperability rather than establish a broader federation model.

D:

SAML conveys signed XML-based assertions through federation between compatible identity providers and service providers. It supports some vendors in the case, but others explicitly accept only OpenID Connect. Requiring all integrations to speak SAML would exclude those applications, whereas a federation architecture can support each vendor's standard separately.

Question 349

A partner’s SaaS login endpoint expects signed XML assertions containing identity attributes from the corporate identity provider. The administrator is choosing the specific standards protocol, not the broader concept of federated sign-on. Which protocol should be configured?

  1. OAuth 2.0 delegated authorization with an access token for an API
  2. OpenID Connect authentication returning a JSON-based ID token
  3. SCIM user provisioning to synchronize accounts without an interactive login assertion
  4. SAML 2.0 federation using signed identity assertions

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Configure Security Assertion Markup Language 2.0 federation so the corporate identity provider issues signed XML authentication assertions that the partner's SaaS service provider validates. The endpoint explicitly asks for signed XML statements carrying identity attributes, which are characteristic of SAML rather than OIDC ID tokens or OAuth API authorization. Validate issuer, audience, recipient, timestamps, certificate trust, and replay protection in the partner trust configuration. The question seeks the specific protocol, not just the general federation architecture.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OAuth 2.0 access tokens authorize clients to use protected APIs within agreed scopes. The specified SaaS login expects signed XML assertions representing user identity, not an API access token. OAuth's delegated authorization purpose does not by itself satisfy the service provider's SAML assertion requirement.

B:

OpenID Connect provides an identity layer over OAuth 2.0 and commonly returns a signed JSON Web Token ID token for user authentication. It is suitable where a service explicitly supports OIDC, but the partner requires signed XML assertions. An OIDC ID token has the wrong wire format and federation protocol for that endpoint.

C:

SCIM can provision users, groups, and attributes between identity systems, streamlining account creation and disablement. It does not produce the browser single-sign-on assertion that the SaaS login endpoint consumes. Synchronizing an account may prepare access but cannot replace the required signed identity assertion during interactive authentication.

Question 350

A reporting tool needs constrained access to an employee's calendar API and should not collect the employee's credentials. Which identity-and-access-management mechanism BEST meets this exact requirement?

  1. Identity federation
  2. SAML federation
  3. OAuth delegated authorization
  4. LDAP directory queries

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use OAuth 2.0 delegated authorization so the employee grants the reporting tool a scoped access token through an authorization server without giving the tool their login password. The calendar API can validate the token's audience, permissions, and expiry to restrict permitted actions. Choose an appropriate authorization-code flow with PKCE for public clients and avoid broader scopes than the report requires. OAuth supplies delegated API authorization; use OpenID Connect separately if verified user identity is also needed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identity federation allows one trusted identity provider to authenticate users for external applications. It may help a reporting client establish a user session, but federation alone does not grant the client narrowly scoped permission to call the employee's calendar API. The immediate requirement is constrained delegated API authorization without revealing the user's password.

B:

SAML federation uses identity assertions for sign-on to compatible service providers. A SAML login may establish who the employee is, but it does not inherently issue calendar API access scopes to a separate reporting tool. The scenario is explicitly about delegated resource access rather than an interactive browser SSO assertion.

D:

LDAP allows authorized clients to query directory entries and group memberships inside an enterprise environment. It is not designed to obtain a short-lived delegated token for a third-party calendar API with user consent. Querying the employee's directory account cannot replace OAuth's resource-owner authorization flow or secure API access scope.