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CompTIA SY0-701 Bundle

Exam Code: SY0-701

Exam Name CompTIA Security+

Certification Provider: CompTIA

Corresponding Certification: CompTIA Security+

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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 30

Question 290

A contractor reports a missing tablet but security cannot determine who held it or which data profile was installed. Which asset-management action should be prioritized for this lifecycle issue?

  1. Named asset ownership in inventory
  2. Security requirements in acquisition process
  3. Asset assignment and inventory linkage
  4. Network discovery reconciled with inventory

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Link each tablet's unique asset identifier to its assigned custodian, issuance and return dates, enrollment record, and active work-data profile in the authoritative inventory. On a loss report, responders can then determine the last holder, whether encryption and MDM policies were in place, and whether selective or full remote wipe is appropriate. The current record lacks precisely these relationships. Keep handoff transactions current and reconcile device-management state with asset assignment rather than trusting a static list.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Naming an accountable service owner makes a business group responsible for an asset's security configuration and lifecycle decisions. A missing tablet, however, also requires knowing which individual held it and what management profile was installed. A generic owner entry could still leave incident responders unable to identify the last custodian or assess the exposed data.

B:

Security requirements in acquisition can specify encryption, management enrollment, support, and warranty controls for tablets. Those safeguards are useful before purchase, but the reported failure is an inventory that cannot connect one missing device to its assigned holder and installed profile. Procurement standards alone do not reconstruct its custody or current management state.

D:

Network discovery can find a tablet while it is attached to an observed subnet and reveal an otherwise unregistered endpoint. Once the tablet is missing, it may be offline or outside the organization entirely. Discovery also does not reliably establish the assigned human custodian or work profile. Asset assignment integrated with management inventory addresses the actual loss-investigation gap.

Question 291

A terminated project has records whose legal retention period has not ended although hardware must be repurposed. What asset governance or handling control BEST resolves this concern?

  1. Documented custody and destruction certificates
  2. Retain required records then sanitize media
  3. Approved physical media destruction
  4. Record data sensitivity and handling requirements

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

First preserve project records for the remaining legal or business retention period in an approved, accessible and appropriately protected repository; only then sanitize media being repurposed using a validated method. This separates the information's retention obligation from the physical equipment's lifecycle. The hardware may return to service, but records must survive until their authorized disposition date. Record the preservation location, retention rule, access protections, and sanitization verification for auditability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Chain-of-custody and destruction documentation prove which physical media was transferred and sanitized. They are useful when equipment is retired, but they do not preserve the project records that still fall within a legal retention period. If media were destroyed now without a compliant retained copy, the organization could lose records it is obligated to maintain.

C:

Physically destroying the media could eliminate data when a device cannot be safely erased or must be disposed of. The hardware in this scenario needs to be repurposed, and required project records have not yet reached their retention date. Destruction would both prevent reuse and risk violating record-preservation duties unless compliant copies already exist.

D:

Data classification defines sensitivity and associated handling requirements, which can guide encryption, access controls, and retention policy. The scenario already provides the decisive requirement: records are subject to an active retention period despite hardware reuse. A new classification label alone neither retains the records in another repository nor sanitizes the outgoing device.

Question 292

An unauthenticated scan misses an old library installed on a server with all inbound service ports closed. Which vulnerability-management activity most precisely addresses this case?

  1. Credentialed vulnerability scan
  2. Passive vulnerability discovery
  3. Static source-code analysis
  4. Dynamic application security testing

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Use an authenticated vulnerability scan or approved host agent to inspect installed packages, system configuration, and vulnerable library versions that an external port scan cannot enumerate. The old library is present on a server even though its network-facing services are closed, so unauthenticated probing produced incomplete visibility rather than proof of safety. Restrict scanner permissions, protect scan credentials, and reconcile findings with the host's software inventory. Not all vulnerable packages are exploitable remotely, so contextual risk assessment still follows discovery.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Passive vulnerability discovery uses observed network traffic and system metadata without sending active probes to fragile targets. It helps identify communicating industrial endpoints and may infer versions. However, a library installed on a server with closed inbound ports might never appear in network traffic, so passive observation cannot reliably enumerate its local packages.

C:

Static application security testing examines source code or compiled artifacts for insecure constructs before or during development. It may detect unsafe APIs but does not necessarily inventory the installed library versions on a production server whose externally exposed ports are closed. Authenticated host inspection is more direct for that deployed component.

D:

Dynamic application security testing sends inputs to a running web or application service to observe exploitation and runtime behavior. If all inbound service ports are closed from the scanner's viewpoint, DAST cannot reach the target. The missing evidence is a local library inventory, which requires credentialed or agent-assisted assessment instead of another external web test.

Question 293

A packaging line cannot tolerate aggressive port probes during production yet needs visibility into running endpoints. What is the most suitable vulnerability assessment or remediation decision?

  1. Static source-code analysis
  2. Software composition/package monitoring
  3. Credentialed vulnerability scan
  4. Passive vulnerability discovery

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Observe mirrored or tapped network traffic to discover active industrial hosts, protocol services, and potentially risky configurations without probing controllers during production. Passive methods minimize interference with sensitive packaging equipment and provide a baseline for later vendor-approved testing. They cannot prove the absence of every host vulnerability, especially dormant software packages, so document blind spots and schedule credentialed assessment only under operational safety procedures. The decisive constraint is preserving plant availability while gaining initial visibility.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Static source-code analysis finds insecure patterns in code at build time without running the production system. It helps software developers but provides limited visibility into many compiled vendor controllers on an active packaging line. The requirement specifically prohibits aggressive probes and asks to observe endpoints currently operating; reviewing source repositories does not discover all active plant devices.

B:

Software composition analysis tracks third-party libraries and their vulnerability advisories in software builds. It is appropriate for owned development pipelines, but the packaging line may include proprietary industrial controllers without available dependency manifests. It cannot replace passive identification of active operational equipment when live network scanning poses an availability risk.

C:

Credentialed scanning can inspect installed applications and configurations deeply using authorized host access. It is useful in normal maintenance windows when vendors approve the load. On a fragile production line, however, login and probing activity may disrupt deterministic equipment behavior. The stem explicitly prohibits aggressive checks while the process is running, making passive discovery safer initially.

Question 294

A development team wants detection of hard-coded credentials in a pull request before building an application. Which vulnerability-management activity most precisely addresses this case?

  1. Static source-code analysis
  2. Dynamic application security testing
  3. Passive vulnerability discovery
  4. Software composition/package monitoring

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Run static application security testing on the proposed pull-request changes before build or merge. SAST examines source, configuration, or intermediate code artifacts for patterns such as embedded secrets, unsafe functions, and insecure data flows without having to deploy the application. The developer wants hard-coded credential detection during code review, which directly matches static analysis and secret-scanning rules. Tune detection and ensure real exposed secrets are rotated rather than merely removed from current code.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Dynamic application testing exercises a running service to find weaknesses observable through HTTP requests and responses. It may discover injection or authorization errors after deployment, but secret literals in source code can remain hidden from the application's external interface. The requested checkpoint is a pull request before the app is built, so static scanning fits better.

C:

Passive vulnerability discovery observes network communication to infer services and potential exposures without disruptive probes. That is useful for running networks, especially industrial systems. A pull request containing a hard-coded password has no network behavior yet, so passive traffic analysis cannot inspect the relevant source-code change.

D:

Software composition analysis enumerates first- and third-party dependencies, checks their versions, and matches them with known vulnerability advisories. It supports supply-chain risk management but generally does not detect a developer directly embedding a credential in an application source file. A dedicated static or secret-scanning rule examines that exact mistake before merge.

Question 295

A deployed test service responds differently to malicious HTTP payloads than source code inspection suggests. What is the most suitable vulnerability assessment or remediation decision?

  1. Software composition/package monitoring
  2. Remediate exploited exposed issue first
  3. Static source-code analysis
  4. Dynamic application security testing

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use dynamic application security testing against the approved deployed test service, supplying carefully scoped malicious HTTP inputs and analyzing responses for evidence of injection, authorization bypass, or unintended behavior. DAST exercises the running application's complete request-handling path, including configuration and frameworks that static inspection may not fully model. The mismatch between source inspection and observed live behavior is exactly why dynamic testing is appropriate. Keep testing within authorized assets and prevent disruptive payloads from reaching production systems.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Software composition analysis identifies packages and indirect dependencies with known advisories. It can uncover library risk in an application but cannot by itself reproduce suspicious responses from the running test service when malformed HTTP payloads are sent. The problem concerns observable execution behavior, not merely whether a dependent package has a vulnerability entry.

B:

Prioritizing an actively exploited, internet-facing vulnerability is a remediation decision based on exposure and threat intelligence. It does not answer which test method can verify whether a deployed service actually mishandles malicious HTTP inputs. No competing patch tickets or known exploitation indicators are supplied here.

C:

SAST examines code without executing the application, which can expose unsafe source patterns. The question states the running service responds differently to crafted requests than source inspection predicts. A runtime test is needed to validate the actual deployment path, web framework behavior, and configuration under attacker-like input.

Question 296

A build uses third-party dependencies and indirect packages that may acquire new vulnerability advisories. Which vulnerability-management activity most precisely addresses this case?

  1. Dynamic application security testing
  2. Environment-specific risk prioritization
  3. Software composition/package monitoring
  4. Static source-code analysis

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use software composition analysis integrated with dependency manifests, lockfiles, build artifacts, and current vulnerability advisories to identify both direct and transitive libraries. A dependency can gain a newly disclosed CVE after the build, so continuous monitoring must revisit existing applications instead of checking only once during publication. The case specifically involves third-party and indirect packages, which SCA is designed to enumerate and correlate with security intelligence. Confirm actual affected versions and reachable functionality before choosing remediation priority.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Dynamic testing probes a running application for weaknesses exposed by its inputs, responses, and state transitions. It does not reliably enumerate every transitive package selected by a build tool, especially libraries that never receive attacker-controlled web inputs. The question asks to continuously track indirect dependencies as new advisories appear, which is a composition-management task.

B:

Environment-specific risk assessment adjusts remediation priorities based on exposure, sensitive data, privileges, and potential business impact. It becomes important after a vulnerable package is identified but does not itself generate an accurate inventory of the project's indirect dependencies. The scenario first needs sustained dependency visibility and advisory matching.

D:

Static source-code testing can find insecure programming constructs, hard-coded credentials, and unsafe data handling in first-party code. It usually does not provide the complete transitive package inventory and ongoing external vulnerability advisory correlation required here. Use SAST alongside SCA, not as a replacement for third-party dependency governance.

Question 297

Two patch tickets are open: an internet-facing VPN appliance has an actively exploited vulnerability listed in the CISA KEV catalog, and an isolated test machine has a higher CVSS score but no known exploitation or sensitive connectivity. Which ticket should be prioritized for prompt containment and remediation?

  1. The isolated lab issue solely because its CVSS number is higher
  2. Both tickets only after the next annual business impact assessment
  3. The lab issue first because it is easier to patch without a service window
  4. The exploited, internet-exposed VPN issue, using KEV and actual exposure as priority signals

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Prioritize the internet-facing VPN vulnerability because CISA's Known Exploited Vulnerabilities catalog documents exploitation in the wild, and the affected device is reachable from untrusted networks. Coordinate rapid containment, a validated patch or compensating controls, verification of remediation, and investigation for possible prior compromise. The isolated test machine's higher CVSS number is not sufficient to outweigh these real attack conditions. Use business impact and operational safety to set the specific change sequence without treating KEV as an automatic guarantee of exploitation on this device.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A high CVSS base score indicates standardized technical severity, but it does not establish that a vulnerable asset is internet reachable or currently being exploited. The lab endpoint is isolated with no known exploitation, so treating its numeric score as the only priority signal ignores the exposed VPN's immediate threat context. Defer the lower-risk item only under a documented risk-based queue.

B:

Annual risk assessment cycles are too coarse to handle an actively exploited internet-facing vulnerability already listed by CISA. The organization can perform normal periodic reviews, but vulnerability management needs timely updates when attack activity and exposure change. Waiting for next year's business impact review would leave a known reachable entry point unaddressed.

C:

Ease of patching is a useful scheduling consideration but should not outrank credible evidence of exploitation against a high-value exposed network edge. The lab machine might be quick to update, yet leaving a remotely accessible VPN flaw exploitable during that work creates disproportionate risk. Prioritize containment and remediation according to exploit status and exposure, then handle lower-risk tickets.

Question 298

A vulnerability report calls a CVE identifier a numeric severity score, although the identifier only names a disclosed vulnerability. Which correction MOST accurately distinguishes the two concepts?

  1. CVE identifies a vulnerability record; CVSS provides standardized severity scoring
  2. A known-exploited catalog entry and a CVE identifier are identical severity metrics
  3. A scanner false positive is corrected solely by changing the CVE identifier
  4. Every CVE maps to the same deployment risk regardless of business exposure

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A CVE identifier uniquely references a disclosed vulnerability record; it is not itself a numeric score. CVSS is a standardized severity-scoring framework whose vectors and score describe aspects such as exploitability and technical impact. Both can inform vulnerability management, but a CVE ID alone does not state the severity of a deployment or prove active exploitation. The report confuses identity with measurement, so separating CVE and CVSS fixes its terminology.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A CISA KEV listing indicates credible observed exploitation of an identified vulnerability, while a CVE identifies the vulnerability record itself. Neither is inherently a severity metric measured on the same numerical scale as CVSS. The statement collapses distinct data sources into identical scores, so it would perpetuate the report's error.

C:

A false-positive scanner finding requires validation of the observed software, version, configuration, or exploit condition. Renaming or editing the CVE identifier does not make a scanner's technical evidence accurate. The question is about the difference between a vulnerability record and a severity score, not whether a detected exposure can be reproduced.

D:

The same CVE can create very different business risks in an exposed payment gateway and a disconnected lab device. CVSS technical severity is only one input; reachability, business impact, controls, and known exploitation also matter. Assuming every deployment has identical risk would conceal context and is unrelated to correcting a CVE-versus-CVSS terminology error.

Question 299

The same software flaw threatens an internet-facing payment gateway and an offline lab endpoint. What is the most suitable vulnerability assessment or remediation decision?

  1. CVE identifies vulnerability records; CVSS describes severity
  2. Environment-specific risk prioritization
  3. Address false-negative coverage from unreachable assets
  4. Remediate exploited exposed issue first

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Assess remediation priority using real deployment context: internet reachability, potential impact on payment processing, exploit intelligence, affected privileges, and the availability of compensating controls. The identical software flaw exists in environments with very different exposure and business criticality, making equal-priority treatment inappropriate. Record why the payment gateway receives earlier remediation and verify whether the offline lab could become connected through maintenance. This is environment-specific risk prioritization rather than a conclusion based only on the CVE or base severity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CVE identifiers and CVSS scores describe what vulnerability is involved and aspects of technical severity, respectively. Those labels cannot fully rank the danger posed to different deployed assets. The same flaw may be reachable from the internet on a payment system but effectively inaccessible on a disconnected lab endpoint, so context must shape action.

C:

False-negative vulnerability coverage occurs when scanners cannot access hosts or lack credentials, leaving gaps in discovery. Both assets in the stem are already known to share the same flaw; the problem is deciding which environment needs earlier attention. Improving scanner coverage is valuable but does not perform that comparative risk assessment.

D:

Prompt remediation of an actively exploited publicly reachable issue is appropriate when evidence of exploitation exists. Here the scenario describes exposure differences, but provides no indication that either asset's particular flaw is in CISA KEV or being actively exploited. Prioritizing the exposed payment system may still be sensible, yet the general method tested is context-based risk assessment rather than assuming a KEV status.

Question 300

A scanner reports obsolete TLS support, but a manually negotiated connection shows only modern versions enabled. Which vulnerability-management activity most precisely addresses this case?

  1. Address false-negative coverage from unreachable assets
  2. Confirm potential false positive
  3. Credentialed vulnerability scan
  4. Static source-code analysis

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Validate the suspected false positive by repeating the test using the correct service endpoint, supported TLS negotiation options, and independent configuration evidence before changing production settings. A scanner may misinterpret proxy responses or test the wrong port, so reproduce the exact alleged obsolete protocol support and document the evidence. The stem says manual connections negotiate only modern versions despite the scanner's warning, making technical confirmation the correct next step. Do not dismiss the finding until the test scope and conditions are reconciled.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A false-negative coverage issue occurs when scanning misses vulnerable systems, often due to absent credentials or unreachable networks. This case instead reports a positive TLS finding that manual negotiation appears to contradict. The risk is unnecessarily changing a safe configuration based on an inaccurate detection result, so the team should validate a possible false positive.

C:

Credentialed scanning can inspect host configuration and installed software that remote probing cannot enumerate. It may help confirm whether an obsolete TLS library is installed, but the disputed finding claims that a service currently accepts an old protocol. The most precise immediate action is reproducing and validating the reported handshake behavior, not simply selecting a deeper scan category.

D:

Static application security testing reviews code for unsafe constructs before or during development. A live TLS support claim depends on server and intermediary configuration, protocol negotiation, and deployed endpoints. Examining application source files alone cannot prove whether the running listener accepts an obsolete TLS version. Verify the service's actual network behavior instead.