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Exam Code: SY0-701

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CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test 14

Question 130

One infected host exploits the same service on nearby systems without further user execution. Which attack pattern or security indicator BEST accounts for these observations?

  1. Spyware
  2. Ransomware
  3. Self-propagating worm
  4. Trojan

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

After one machine is infected, it independently exploits reachable copies of the same service on nearby systems without another user opening a file. That autonomous network propagation is the distinguishing feature of a worm. Worms can use software vulnerabilities to replicate quickly across hosts; the malware's payload need not be destructive for it to qualify. This is different from a file-dependent virus, which typically spreads by infecting host objects. The scenario supports the self-propagating mechanism, not a particular sponsor or final malicious objective.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Spyware quietly collects information about device or user activity and sends it to an unauthorized recipient. The affected host here exploits the same service on nearby systems without another user launching the code, which is evidence about propagation. No covert data collection, browser tracking, or surveillance objective is stated. A worm could carry spyware as a payload, but the observed self-spreading mechanism is what the question asks to classify.

B:

Ransomware commonly encrypts or blocks access to resources and demands payment or another concession, and it can spread using automated exploitation. This case, however, gives only a host that autonomously attacks neighboring services and establishes new infections. No encryption, lockout, payment note, or extortion motive is described. The ability to self-propagate is a defining worm behavior, while ransomware identifies a different payload outcome. A single malware specimen could exhibit both, but the provided evidence supports only the spread classification.

D:

A Trojan disguises a malicious program as legitimate software and relies on the user accepting or launching that disguise. The scenario contains no counterfeit installer or deceptive application presentation. It specifically notes that additional infections happen without fresh user execution, which is strong evidence of autonomous propagation. Trojan functionality could be present in the first infection, but that unobserved entry behavior does not explain how the malware reaches neighboring systems.

Question 131

A purported conferencing app installs remote-access malware after the user launches it. What is the most technically defensible interpretation of these signs?

  1. Keylogging malware
  2. Ransomware
  3. Trojan
  4. Self-propagating worm

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A program presented as a legitimate conferencing application actually installs malicious remote-access functionality when the user launches it. That deceptive packaging is a Trojan characteristic: the user is induced to run apparently useful software, and the hidden payload performs unauthorized actions. The description does not require the Trojan to reproduce or to encrypt data; those are different features. The concrete compromise involves trust in the software's advertised identity and the user's execution of the installer. Application allowlisting and verified distribution reduce this route.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Keylogging malware records keyboard input to capture information such as passwords and session-related text. The purported conferencing app installs remote-access malware when launched, but no keystroke capture is described. Remote-control capabilities and keylogging can coexist, yet the evidence emphasizes the deceptive packaging and execution of the malicious installer. Classifying it as a keylogger would assume an unobserved payload feature instead of identifying the visible Trojan delivery mechanism.

B:

Ransomware restricts data or system availability to extort victims, often using encryption and payment demands. The fake conferencing installer is said to install remote-access malware, not encrypt files, disable backups, or present a ransom note. A remote-access payload might later deploy ransomware, but no such progression is included. The current evidence supports a disguised application carrying malware rather than an extortion outcome.

D:

A worm spreads autonomously between systems, typically by exploiting accessible services, with little or no additional user interaction. In this case a person runs a purported conferencing installer, which then installs a remote-access payload. The case does not show that the program independently infects neighboring hosts. Malware can combine Trojan packaging with worm propagation, but the demonstrated property is disguise during installation, not autonomous network spread.

Question 132

An unauthorized extension silently records visited sites and sends the history externally. Which attack pattern or security indicator BEST accounts for these observations?

  1. Trojan
  2. Spyware
  3. Keylogging malware
  4. Rootkit

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The unauthorized extension silently records the user's visited websites and exports the history without consent. Spyware collects behavioral or other private information and transmits it to an adversary or unapproved third party, often while trying to avoid attention. The collection of browsing activity is the decisive behavior; merely being installed in a browser does not make it legitimate. Permission review, managed extension policies, and investigation of unexpected outbound communications help address this example. The scenario does not assert theft of typed passwords or administrative stealth mechanisms.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A Trojan is malicious software that disguises itself as benign or desired software; the characteristic is deceptive appearance or delivery. The unauthorized browser extension could have been disguised to obtain installation, but the question does not describe how it was marketed. Its clear observed function is covert tracking and external transmission of browsing history. Therefore spyware is the more specific classification based on what the installed extension actually does rather than an inferred packaging tactic.

C:

Keylogging malware specifically captures keystrokes, which may reveal usernames, passwords, and communications as they are typed. The extension here records visited sites and browsing history, not keyboard input or individual key events. Both are forms of unauthorized surveillance, so the categories can overlap in some tools, but the exact observation distinguishes general spyware from a keylogger. Classifying it as keystroke capture would add a monitoring mechanism that the evidence does not show.

D:

A rootkit typically hides malicious components by tampering with operating-system visibility, privileged hooks, or trusted inspection mechanisms. The browser extension quietly sends history, but the question does not report kernel-level concealment, hidden processes, or modified system APIs. Spyware can operate without a rootkit and without administrator privileges. Silence or lack of user awareness alone is insufficient evidence that a stealth framework has modified operating-system reporting.

Question 133

An endpoint process hooks keyboard input and sends captured credentials to a remote host. What is the most technically defensible interpretation of these signs?

  1. Logic bomb
  2. Rootkit
  3. Spyware
  4. Keylogging malware

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The endpoint process hooks keyboard input, captures credentials as they are typed, and sends the captured data to a remote host. That is keylogging malware, defined by interception of keystrokes and exposure of whatever secrets the user enters. It does not require a fake application disguise or automatic propagation to other machines. The remote destination and credential-focused collection establish malicious use in this scenario. Endpoint monitoring of suspicious input hooks and unexpected exfiltration may support detection, although legitimate accessibility software can also observe input under authorized conditions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A logic bomb contains malicious instructions that activate only after a configured condition, such as a date, account change, or lifecycle event. The process here hooks keyboard input and immediately exports captured credentials. No delayed trigger or separate activation condition is described. Malware might have both a trigger and a collection payload, but the observed behavior is continuous keystroke interception rather than conditional activation.

B:

A rootkit focuses on hiding software, processes, files, or network activity by undermining ordinary inspection mechanisms, often with privileged access. The question shows an endpoint process intercepting keyboard input and sending credentials out; it does not say that processes or hooks are concealed from system tools. Kernel-level interception is possible for some keyloggers, but a keylogger's input capture is not automatically proof of rootkit stealth. The specific operation demonstrated is credential keystroke recording.

C:

Spyware is the broader category of software that collects personal or behavioral information without adequate authorization. A keylogger is therefore often a specialized form of spyware, and this choice is conceptually related. However, the question names the exact mechanism: hooking keyboard input to capture credentials. The more precise classification is keylogging malware rather than spyware in general. A spyware tool that only records browsing history would not demonstrate that same input-capture behavior.

Question 134

A developer implants code that deletes files only after their employment account is disabled. Which attack pattern or security indicator BEST accounts for these observations?

  1. Rootkit
  2. Ransomware
  3. Keylogging malware
  4. Logic bomb

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The developer plants destructive code that remains dormant until the employment account is disabled and then deletes files. This is a logic bomb: malicious behavior is conditioned on a specific event rather than simply executing at installation time. The condition is especially probative because it is tied to account lifecycle and potential retaliation. A logic bomb can delete, corrupt, or otherwise damage data once triggered, and it need not replicate or demand payment. Monitoring scheduled tasks, suspicious conditional code, and change controls can help prevent such implanted triggers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A rootkit is designed to conceal the presence or activity of software through modifications to system visibility or privileged inspection mechanisms. The developer's planted code instead waits for an employment-account status change before deleting files. That is a conditional destructive trigger, with no stated hiding of kernel modules, hooks, or processes. Rootkit techniques might be used to conceal a logic bomb, but concealment is not the defining behavior here.

B:

Ransomware typically denies access to data or systems to force victims into paying a ransom or making a concession. The malicious code deletes files after an employment account is disabled, but the case does not mention encryption, a payment demand, or any extortion objective. File destruction can cause serious outages without being ransomware. The special evidence is the trigger tied to an employment event, which points to a logic bomb rather than a monetized availability attack.

C:

Keylogging malware captures keyboard input, usually to steal typed secrets or monitor user activity. The implanted code is described as deleting files after the developer's account becomes disabled; it does not record keystrokes or export credentials. An attacker could install both mechanisms, but nothing here connects the payload to keyboard interception. The required inference is the code's deferred execution condition, not a surveillance or credential-theft function.

Question 135

An endpoint's kernel module hides its process and network sockets from normal inspection. What is the most technically defensible interpretation of these signs?

  1. Keylogging malware
  2. Spyware
  3. Rootkit
  4. File-dependent virus

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The kernel module conceals its own process and network sockets from normal system inspection, indicating rootkit behavior. Rootkits undermine trusted visibility or privileged system mechanisms so malicious components can persist or operate without being noticed. The scenario shows operating-system-level concealment, not merely a program running in the background. This classification does not guarantee the attacker has full control of every kernel feature, but it identifies the central stealth technique. Cross-view inspection and trusted offline analysis can help investigate such inconsistencies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Keylogging malware intercepts keyboard events and may record passwords or other typed information. The kernel module in this case hides processes and network sockets from inspection but is not reported to capture input. Both keyloggers and rootkits can operate with elevated privileges, yet their characteristic behavior differs. Classifying the module as a keylogger would infer a credential collection capability rather than address its verified suppression of system visibility.

B:

Spyware collects information such as browsing history, messages, screenshots, or user activity and transmits it without authorization. This module's described function is concealment of its process and network sockets, not collection or exfiltration of personal information. A rootkit might protect spyware from detection, but the presence of stealth alone does not prove the payload's surveillance goal. The supported classification should follow the module's observed hiding behavior.

D:

A file-dependent virus replicates by inserting copies of malicious code into host files that later execute it. The kernel module is said to hide processes and network connections, with no file infection, replication, or user-opened host document. A virus might use rootkit capabilities to evade detection, but replication must be evidenced before assigning the virus label. The case instead provides a specific rootkit-style concealment action.

Question 136

After a user opens an infected macro-enabled document, malicious code attaches copies of itself to other local document files. Each newly infected file executes the code when another user opens it. The code does not independently scan and infect network hosts. What is the MOST specific classification?

  1. A Trojan that masquerades as a legitimate program but has no replication capability
  2. A self-propagating network worm that spreads without a user opening a host file
  3. A file-dependent virus that replicates by infecting other documents
  4. A logic bomb whose payload waits for a configured date or account event

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The malicious macro executes after a user opens an infected document, then copies itself into additional local document files so each newly infected host file can execute the code when opened. That is file-dependent virus replication: the malware spreads by infecting host objects rather than autonomously scanning network services. The question supplies the essential replication evidence, not merely that macro code runs. The distinction matters because a Trojan may not replicate, whereas a worm typically propagates without subsequent host-file opening by users. Restricting macros and scanning documents reduce this path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A Trojan generally masquerades as legitimate software or conceals a malicious function in an apparently useful application, but it does not have to reproduce by infecting files. This case explicitly says the macro code attaches copies of itself to other local documents and runs again when a newly infected file is opened. That replication through host documents makes a virus more specific than a mere disguised installer. Trojan packaging alone would not explain the repeated infection of additional documents.

B:

A self-propagating network worm can seek and exploit reachable hosts without a person opening an infected document each time. The scenario explicitly rules out autonomous network scanning and says copied malicious code spreads to other documents, with execution triggered when those files are opened. That host-file dependency distinguishes the described virus from a network worm. An adversary could distribute infected documents broadly, but the stated replication mechanism still depends on file infection rather than independent host exploitation.

D:

A logic bomb activates a malicious payload after a specific condition, such as a date, a role removal, or a system event. The code here runs when an infected document is opened and actively replicates by infecting other documents; no delayed condition beyond normal file execution is introduced. A virus could incorporate a logic-bomb trigger, but the observable behavior to classify is host-file replication. Treating routine document opening as a logic bomb would obscure the actual propagation mechanism.

Question 137

Thousands of sources overwhelm a service's ingress capacity simultaneously. What is the most technically defensible interpretation of these signs?

  1. On-path modification
  2. Reflected DNS amplification
  3. Distributed denial of service
  4. DNS cache poisoning

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Thousands of sources send simultaneous traffic that overwhelms a service's ingress capacity and prevents legitimate requests from reaching it. This is a distributed denial-of-service attack because the disabling load originates from many machines or endpoints instead of a single requester. The scenario proves the distributed saturation effect, not the precise botnet, protocol, or reflection mechanism used. Traffic baselining, upstream filtering, rate controls, and provider DDoS mitigation are relevant responses, with exact defenses chosen only after determining the traffic characteristics.

Incorrect Answers

A:

On-path modification occurs when an adversary intercepts and alters communications between endpoints, potentially changing requests or responses in transit. The scenario instead describes many sources simultaneously overwhelming a service's ingress capacity. No intermediary gateway, changed payload, or modified message is reported. Both can disrupt service, but the decisive observation is the distributed traffic volume, not a tampered conversation. Treating a network flood as on-path manipulation would misdirect the incident investigation.

B:

Reflected DNS amplification is one specific form of DDoS in which attackers spoof a victim's source address in DNS queries to amplifying reflectors that send larger responses to that victim. The stem reports thousands of sources flooding ingress capacity but says nothing about DNS, spoofed queries, or amplified responses. DNS amplification could cause these symptoms, but selecting it would infer an unobserved mechanism. The broader category of distributed denial of service is supported by the evidence.

D:

DNS cache poisoning supplies false address records to a resolver so users are misdirected when resolving legitimate names. The question describes traffic saturation from many sources, not forged DNS records or users receiving a malicious address for a hostname. A compromised DNS infrastructure could contribute to other attacks, but that is not evidenced here. The observed availability failure comes from excessive distributed traffic rather than corrupted name-resolution data.

Question 138

A victim receives oversized DNS replies from many reflectors after forged queries claim the victim's address. Which attack pattern or security indicator BEST accounts for these observations?

  1. Reflected DNS amplification
  2. DNS cache poisoning
  3. Distributed denial of service
  4. Possible DNS tunneling indicator

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An attacker sends DNS queries to publicly reachable reflectors while spoofing the victim's source address, causing those reflectors to return amplified responses to the victim. The reported oversized DNS replies from many servers and forged source addresses are defining signs of reflected DNS amplification. It is also a distributed denial-of-service technique, but this label identifies the exact mechanism rather than merely its availability impact. Source-address validation and limiting abusive resolver exposure can reduce reflection opportunities, while upstream filtering helps protect the recipient.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DNS cache poisoning changes the resolver's stored answer for a name so future clients receive incorrect addresses. The victim in this scenario is receiving large DNS responses from many reflectors after forged queries, not resolving a legitimate bank hostname to a malicious IP. The forged source address is used to redirect reply traffic and amplify load, not to insert a false cached record. The relevant problem is reflective traffic generation rather than answer integrity.

C:

Distributed denial of service is the broader effect of many sources generating enough traffic or requests to disrupt availability. Reflected DNS amplification fits within this category, which makes DDoS a related but less precise alternative. The question supplies a distinctive mechanism: oversized DNS responses induced by spoofed queries and sent from multiple reflectors. A more technically useful identification names reflection and amplification, not only the service outage that may result.

D:

DNS tunneling can conceal data inside repeated or unusually structured DNS queries and responses, allowing an infected host to exchange information through name resolution. This victim sees oversized replies from reflectors after spoofed-source queries, a volumetric pattern rather than evidence of encoded data exchange. Long base-encoded subdomain labels, repeated periodic requests, and external query anomalies would be more relevant to tunneling. The supplied evidence instead supports amplification directed at a victim address.

Question 139

Users resolving a legitimate banking hostname receive an attacker-controlled IP due to forged resolver data. What is the most technically defensible interpretation of these signs?

  1. On-path modification
  2. Reflected DNS amplification
  3. DNS cache poisoning
  4. Possible DNS tunneling indicator

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The resolver has been supplied false information for a legitimate banking hostname, so clients receive an attacker-controlled IP when performing an ordinary lookup. This is DNS cache poisoning: inaccurate address records in the resolver's response path redirect users even though they typed the correct hostname. It can enable interception or phishing, but the initial weakness is corrupted DNS answer integrity. DNSSEC validation where applicable, secure resolver operation, and investigation of forged response sources help address this behavior. The question supplies the false resolver data explicitly.

Incorrect Answers

A:

On-path modification changes communications while they travel between endpoints, often by a malicious intermediary manipulating application messages. Users here reach the wrong destination because a DNS resolver provides forged name-to-address data. No gateway is shown editing live HTTP requests or TLS sessions after resolution. An attacker might perform an on-path attack to inject DNS responses, but the observed security outcome is poisoned resolver state and corrupted address answers, which is more specific.

B:

Reflected DNS amplification uses spoofed queries and many DNS reflectors to send inflated reply traffic toward a victim, normally to exhaust capacity. This case describes legitimate name lookups producing an attacker-controlled IP due to forged resolver data, not an incoming flood of oversized DNS packets. The primary harm is integrity of name resolution and potential phishing redirection, not availability lost through traffic amplification. The presence of DNS in both attacks does not make them equivalent.

D:

DNS tunneling usually embeds command-and-control or exfiltrated data in DNS label contents or unusual query patterns. The symptom here is a wrong address returned for a legitimate banking name due to forged DNS records. No encoded labels, repeated long queries, or data exchange using DNS are described. Poisoning manipulates where name resolution points, whereas tunneling uses DNS traffic as a covert communication carrier. The observed symptom matches poisoning rather than tunneling.

Question 140

A rogue gateway intercepts and changes HTTP requests between a user and internal app. Which attack pattern or security indicator BEST accounts for these observations?

  1. Protocol downgrade attack
  2. DNS cache poisoning
  3. Credential replay
  4. On-path modification

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A rogue gateway positions itself between a user and an internal application and changes HTTP requests during transit. This is an on-path modification attack: the intermediary can inspect or alter data flowing between endpoints when communication integrity protections are absent or bypassed. The defining fact is modification of live traffic by the middle system, not simply malicious DNS resolution or credential reuse. End-to-end authenticated encryption and verified network paths reduce this exposure. The scenario does not establish that a protocol downgrade was needed or occurred.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A protocol downgrade attack coerces endpoints into using an older or weaker protocol or cipher than they otherwise could negotiate. The rogue gateway here intercepts and modifies HTTP requests, but the question does not say any transport negotiation or encryption version was forced down. A downgrade can be performed by an on-path attacker, yet it is a narrower behavior that needs specific negotiation evidence. The demonstrated activity is interception and alteration of application traffic.

B:

DNS cache poisoning changes the IP address a resolver returns for a hostname, potentially sending users to an attacker-controlled endpoint. This case specifies a rogue gateway that directly intercepts and changes HTTP requests between a user and internal application. No DNS record or name-resolution answer has been manipulated. Both might facilitate redirection, but the relevant security boundary here is in-transit request integrity at the gateway rather than the resolver cache.

C:

Credential replay reuses captured passwords, tokens, or session artifacts to authenticate without obtaining the legitimate user's secret again. The rogue gateway is observed changing HTTP requests while they travel between endpoints, not presenting a stolen session token to impersonate a user. A gateway could potentially steal credentials, but the question does not say that happened. Selecting replay would invent a later authentication step and miss the actual tampering technique.