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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 55

Question 540

A controller provides a WPA2-Personal WLAN mapped to guest VLAN 200. The SSID is visible and clients authenticate, but their traffic is placed into employee VLAN 10. Which GUI field should be reviewed?

  1. The WLAN/policy profile client VLAN mapping, correcting it to the authorized guest VLAN 200.
  2. The WPA2 passphrase, because successful authentication proves the VLAN must be correct.
  3. The switch default OSPF cost for all routes.
  4. The 2.4-GHz RF channel number, changing it to 200.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

After successful WLAN authentication, the selected controller policy determines where associated client frames are switched or tagged. A mistaken mapping to VLAN 10 breaks segmentation even when the WPA2 handshake is valid. Verify both the policy association and upstream trunk or local switching VLAN transport.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The key controls link authentication, not the client’s wired VLAN mapping. Authentication can succeed while segmentation is wrong.

C:

A route metric cannot change which WLAN VLAN is assigned at association. Layer 2 client mapping must be corrected.

D:

Radio channel numbers belong to the wireless spectrum and do not set 802.1Q VLAN assignments. The mismatch is in client policy mapping.

Question 541

A team manages 300 access switches that must share one approved NTP and logging policy. Manual CLI changes regularly miss a switch. What automation advantage is most relevant?

  1. Repeatable configuration deployment from one reviewed source of truth across the fleet.
  2. An identical CDP device ID on all 300 switches.
  3. A larger IPv4 subnet that contains all switches.
  4. Manual copy-and-paste changes on each device as the only process.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Automation can apply the same validated desired configuration to many network devices, reducing manual variation and missed changes. A reviewed inventory and template make outcomes more predictable and auditable. It does not automatically prove that the chosen configuration is correct, so testing, authorization and exception handling remain necessary.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Duplicate discovery identities do not deploy NTP or logging settings and would reduce the accuracy of neighbor inventories.

C:

Address size may affect network reachability but does not ensure consistent policy on every device. Automation is a configuration-management problem.

D:

Manual repetition is the cause of the inconsistency in this scenario. It does not deliver a centrally repeatable policy rollout.

Question 542

A network engineer must quickly identify devices whose actual interface configuration deviates from a documented approved template. Which automation capability helps?

  1. Drift detection comparing collected device state against the declared desired configuration.
  2. Changing switch port LEDs to the same color.
  3. A DNS CNAME alias for the device management hostname.
  4. A DHCP pool that leases a new IP whenever settings differ.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Configuration drift checking gathers live state and compares it with a known desired baseline. It helps detect unauthorized manual changes, inconsistent upgrades or partial deployments. A useful workflow reports meaningful differences and can propose reviewable remediation rather than blindly overwriting every device.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Physical indicators are not a machine-readable full configuration comparison. Drift requires inspecting operational or configuration data.

C:

Aliases improve name resolution flexibility but do not reveal how running configuration differs from approved intent.

D:

DHCP supplies host addressing and does not compare interface settings with policy baselines. It cannot report VLAN or ACL configuration drift.

Question 543

A production automation push updates router ACLs. Management wants to validate the intended policy on a small safe device set before broader rollout. What process supports this?

  1. Push changes to every router immediately without testing.
  2. Disable logging during the rollout to reduce noise.
  3. Increase the default route administrative distance on all routers.
  4. Predeployment validation and staged deployment with a rollback option inside the authorized workflow.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Testing the ACL change against representative traffic and a limited target set can expose mistakes before they affect the full network. A reviewed pipeline can then roll out the same validated configuration with monitoring and rollback instructions. This safety practice does not require multiple user-facing content-production checkpoints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An untested ACL can block critical paths across all sites. The requirement asks for a controlled technical rollout, not a blind fleet change.

B:

Logging is important for detecting outages and policy mismatches. Suppressing evidence does not make the ACL safe.

C:

Routing preference is unrelated to validating the proposed ACL syntax and traffic policy. It can introduce new connectivity defects.

Question 544

An automation controller uses one central approved inventory of device IPs and roles. What benefit does inventory-based execution supply?

  1. Targeted, reproducible changes to the intended hosts and groups rather than ad hoc guesses.
  2. Automatic guarantee that every device configuration is secure.
  3. Replacement of administrative identity with anonymous login.
  4. Elimination of all network routing because host groups are named.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A structured inventory maps each managed node to its address, role and configuration group so jobs can select the correct devices. This reduces accidental application of switch settings to routers or production policy to test equipment. Inventory quality and access control remain important, because an incorrect inventory can still cause widespread mistakes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inventory records are selection data, not proof of security correctness. The intended tasks and resulting states still require review.

C:

An inventory does not authenticate the automation job. Device management still needs authorized credentials or identity methods.

D:

Grouping automation targets does not replace IP forwarding paths. The controller still must reach its managed devices.

Question 545

An automation job configures 50 devices successfully but fails on five due to authentication errors. What is the most reliable operational practice?

  1. Collect per-device execution results, remediate failed identities and rerun only the needed changes safely.
  2. Disable every device login to prevent further authentication errors.
  3. Declare all 55 devices compliant because a majority succeeded.
  4. Change the DNS A record of all routers without inspecting failed sessions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Automation must report individual success/failure outcomes instead of assuming an entire batch is complete because most targets succeeded. Per-device logs and targeted retries allow operators to fix the actual cause without replaying unnecessary writes. Idempotent tasks help make reruns safer, while access failures still require proper credential handling.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Removing authentication is unsafe and unnecessary. The goal is a correctly authorized automation identity, not unrestricted access.

C:

A majority outcome leaves five known exceptions and cannot justify full fleet compliance. Each failure requires explicit verification and remediation.

D:

The failures are explicitly authentication errors; rewriting DNS records cannot be assumed to repair credentials or permissions.

Question 546

A configuration change on 200 routers must be reviewed and traceable to an approved version before deployment. Which automation practice supports that requirement?

  1. Keep device configuration definitions under version control with approvals and a repeatable deployment pipeline.
  2. Give every engineer the same privileged device password.
  3. Use only a larger OSPF area ID as a change identifier.
  4. Edit each running-config directly and delete change history.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Version-controlled network configuration records what changed, who approved it and which revision was deployed. A tested pipeline can promote that exact state to the intended inventory of routers. It improves auditability but still requires rollback planning and protected automation credentials.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Shared credentials weaken attribution and do not implement approved change versions or deployment gates. Identity control is separate.

C:

An OSPF area ID is a routing protocol parameter, not a version-controlled record of proposed configuration changes.

D:

Direct undocumented edits defeat change traceability and make rollback harder. They do not provide a reviewed configuration revision.

Question 547

A script intended to apply a VLAN configuration is run twice. The second run creates duplicate VLAN definitions and disruptive side effects. What desirable property was missing?

  1. Idempotence: rerunning against an already compliant device should not keep changing the result.
  2. An OSPF DR election between the script and devices.
  3. High packet-per-second forwarding capacity.
  4. A smaller IPv6 prefix length.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An idempotent automation operation converges toward a known desired state and avoids generating new unintended effects when applied repeatedly. This matters when jobs are retried after partial network failures. Idempotence is not proof of technical correctness, but it improves safe repeatability for routine configuration management.

Incorrect Answers

B:

OSPF DR is a routing-protocol election and has no role in determining whether repeated configuration jobs are safe.

C:

Forwarding throughput does not determine whether a configuration task creates duplicate state on a second run. This is an automation design defect.

D:

IP address prefixes do not enforce idempotence of configuration changes. The script needs state-aware behavior.

Question 548

An engineer wants periodic collection of interface counters from every switch without logging into each one interactively. Which automation outcome is useful?

  1. Scheduled telemetry or API collection with consistent parsing and centralized results.
  2. Apply static default routes to all devices regardless of topology.
  3. Disable SNMP or telemetry on every switch.
  4. Manual screenshot capture from each CLI every hour.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An automated collector can retrieve the same operational measurements from many devices on a defined schedule and normalize them for trend analysis. This reduces human polling errors and supports quicker comparisons during an incident. The collector still depends on authorized read access and should not alter configuration solely to observe counters.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Blind routing changes do not retrieve monitoring counters and can disrupt forwarding. Telemetry collection is read oriented.

C:

Removing monitoring services prevents automated observation rather than centralizing it. The goal is to collect authorized statistics.

D:

Screenshots are slow and difficult to parse consistently, which is precisely the operational burden that automation can reduce.

Question 549

A company evaluates a controller-based deployment and worries that losing the controller would remove the ability to troubleshoot devices. What design work should be done?

  1. Validate controller high availability, management recovery paths and behavior of devices during controller loss.
  2. Disable all device logs to prevent controller overload.
  3. Eliminate every local console port from devices.
  4. Assume all controller-based networks always fail open to unauthorized access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Control-plane resiliency requires understanding what operations depend on the central controller and which device-level functions remain available. Redundant controllers and approved out-of-band recovery access can reduce operational risk. A design decision should be based on documented platform behavior and tested failures, not on universal assumptions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Logging is useful during management outages and does not solve controller high availability. Turning it off reduces diagnostic evidence.

C:

Removing recovery access can make an outage harder to resolve. Controlled console/out-of-band management is often a valuable safeguard.

D:

Failover and access behavior vary by technology and policy. A universal fail-open claim is unsafe and not a substitute for failure testing.

Question 550

An operator wants network-wide topology and device health displayed in one place instead of collecting output from 250 separate CLI logins. Which controller characteristic is relevant?

  1. A new DNS A record for every switch, without collecting operational metrics.
  2. A manually maintained spreadsheet updated only once a year.
  3. Disabling LLDP and telemetry on all devices.
  4. Centralized inventory, telemetry and topology visibility across managed infrastructure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An enterprise network controller can aggregate device inventory and operational state to give consistent topology and health information. This helps identify faults and compare policy across sites. A controller still depends on appropriate collection permissions and device connectivity; it cannot infer arbitrary unknown devices without data.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Name records help locate devices but do not show interface status or network topology. A management platform must actually ingest state.

B:

A static inventory does not provide the requested current centralized operational view or automatically refreshed telemetry. It may be useful as a record but not as a live controller.

C:

Removing local discovery and measurement can reduce the data the controller needs. It undermines operational visibility.